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Background: a classic result in probability

If a triangle's vertices are random points on a circle, then the probability that the triangle is acute is $1/4$. There are intuitive explanations (example).

We can express this fact as $P(a^2+b^2<c^2)=1/4$, where $a,b,c$ are the side lengths in random order (we do not define $c$ as the longest side).

A typo leads to a discovery

I made a random triangle simulator, and I wanted to test it using the result above, but I accidentally typed $a^\color{red}{1}+b^2<c^2$.

Interestingly, the simulator suggested that $P(a+b^2<c^2)=1/3$, which is a rather simple probability.

I then proved that this is true if the circle has radius $1$, but my proof (shown below) is not intuitive.

My question

If the radius of the circle is $1$, is there an intuitive explanation for $P(a+b^2<c^2)=1/3$?

Equivalently, if the radius of the circle is $R$, then $P(aR+b^2<c^2)=1/3$.

(More examples of explanations that are intuitive, for me, are here and here. A list of simple probability results that resist intuitive explanation is here.)

My non-intuitive proof

Assume the radius of the circle is $1$.

Let $x$ and $y$ be independent and uniform in $(0,\pi)$, and let:

  • $a=2\sin x$
  • $b=2|\sin(x+y)|$
  • $c=2\sin y$

$P\left(a+b^2<c^2\right)=P\left(f(x,y)<0\right)$ where $f(x,y)=\sin^2x+2\sin^2(x+y)-2\sin^2y$

Define $g(x,y)=\sin\left(y+\frac{1}{2}x-\frac{7\pi}{12}\right)\sin\left(y+\frac{1}{2}x-\frac{11\pi}{12}\right)\sin x$.

When expanded, $f(x,y)$ and $g(x,y)$ become the same thing, namely, $\sin x+4\left(\cos x\right)\left(\sin x\right)\left(\cos y\right)\left(\sin y\right)+2\left(\sin^{2}x\right)\left(\cos^{2}y\right)-2\left(\sin^{2}x\right)\left(\sin^{2}y\right)$.

$\therefore P(a+b^2<c^2)=P\left(\sin\left(y+\frac{1}{2}x-\frac{7\pi}{12}\right)\sin\left(y+\frac{1}{2}x-\frac{11\pi}{12}\right)\sin x<0\right)$

A cartesian graph showing this region has the straight lines $y=-\frac{1}{2}x+\frac{7\pi}{12}+k\pi$ and $y=-\frac{1}{2}x+\frac{11\pi}{12}+k\pi$ and $x=k\pi$ where $k\in\mathbb{Z}$.

In the square bounded by $0<x<\pi$ and $0<y<\pi$, these lines bound a region with $1/3$ the area of the square.

$\therefore P(a+b^2<c^2)=1/3$.

Variations

Simulations suggest the following variations of $P(a^2+b^2<c^2)=1/4$.

  • $P\left(ab+b^2<c^2\right)=1/3$
  • $P\left(ac+b^2<c^2\right)=1/6$
  • $P\left(a^2+b^2<ac\right)=1/12$
  • $P(a^2+b^2<(a+b)c)=1/2$

I'm not asking for proofs of these variations; I'm sharing them in case they might shed some insight.

Dan
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    Due to the expression being non-homogeneous, I'd be really surprised if this had a nice intuitive explanation. Even the analytical proof shows the factorization of $f(x)$ is a happy accident.

    I would try to see if the homogenized quantity $P(aR+b^2<c^2)$ have some geometric interpretation.

    – dezdichado Jun 22 '25 at 15:44
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    @dezdichado I managed to prove $P(ab>c)=1/2$, which is also non-homogeneous, using pure geometry and a symmetry argument, here. – Dan Jun 22 '25 at 15:51
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    @Dan if you prove something non-homogeneous for a unit circle, there may be a homogeneous version for a general circle involving the radius such as $P(ab > cR)=1/2$ – Henry Jun 23 '25 at 11:54
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    @Dan I found evidence for another $\displaystyle P\left(ab^2 + a^2b > c^3\right) = \frac{1}{15}$ – Nilotpal Sinha Jun 23 '25 at 17:35
  • @NilotpalSinha You're defining $c$ as the longest side, right? – Dan Jun 23 '25 at 22:04
  • @NilotpalSinha I think we also have $P(ab^3+a^3b<c^4)=\frac12$. I ask about this here. – Dan Jun 24 '25 at 04:05
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    @Dan Yes, in my comment, $c$ is the longest side. Sorry I missed mentioning that. I think there is a general pattern for $P\left(ab(a^x + b^x) < c^{x+2}\right)$. Will share the findings if I find something interesting in my simulations. – Nilotpal Sinha Jun 24 '25 at 07:06
  • @NilotpalSinha I think $P(a^2+b^2<c^2)=\dfrac14$ can be generalized as $P\left(a^2+b^2<c^2\left(\dfrac{c}{a+b}\right)^{x-2}\right)=\dfrac{1}{2x}$ for $x\ge 1$. – Dan Jun 24 '25 at 13:53
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    @Dan Possible generalization. If $x,y,z$ are the random sides of a triangle, $a>1, b\ge\frac{a}{2}$, then there exists an $f(x)$ such that $$ P\left(\frac{x^a+y^a}{(x+y)^a}<\frac{z^b}{(x+y)^{b}}\right)= \frac{f(a)}{a} $$ i.e. after a certain point, the probability does not depend on $b$. For integer $n$, the values of $f(n)$ are rational. The first few values of $f(n)$ are for $n = 2,3,4,5,6,7,8$ are $$ \frac{1}{2}, \frac{8}{9}, \frac{5}{4}, \frac{8}{5}, \frac{35}{18}, \frac{16}{7}, \frac{21}{8} $$I will post this as a question tomorrow, right now I am trying to find the form of $f(x)$. – Nilotpal Sinha Jun 24 '25 at 21:50
  • @NilotpalSinha I'm getting that $P\left(\dfrac{x^a+y^a}{(x+y)^a}<\dfrac{z^b}{(x+y)^{b}}\right)=\dfrac{1}{3}\left(1-\dfrac{1}{a^2}\right)\left(\dfrac{a}{b}\right)$ for $a\ge1$ and $b\ge \dfrac{a}{2}$ (so the probability is not independent of $b$). – Dan Jun 24 '25 at 23:36
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    @Dan I spotted the typpo in code. By mistake I had used in $b$ in denominator instead of $a$ it appeared as if the RHS did not depend on $b$ my corrected expression is i.e. $$ P\left(\frac{x^a + y^a}{(x+y)^a} < \frac{z^b}{(x+y)^{b}}\right) = \frac{f(a)}{b} $$ I completed my expression for $f(a)$ and it is exactly the same as in yours i.e. $$f(a) = \frac{1}{3}\left(1 - \frac{1}{a^2}\right)$$ This agrees with the special case $a=b$ solved here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4903149/conjecture-generalization-of-the-triangle-inequality-to-exponents-of-the-sides – Nilotpal Sinha Jun 25 '25 at 09:09
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    @Dan I have posted it as a problem here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/5078410/generalization-of-the-probability-p-leftxaya-ge-za-right-frac1a2 – Nilotpal Sinha Jun 25 '25 at 09:53

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