We are going over classifying quotient groups in my intro group theory class, and this is the first thing that has given me genuine trouble in the class (and boy, has it given me trouble). The case of finite quotient groups makes sense to me, Lagrange's theorem makes everything work out nicely, but as soon as we work with infinite groups, I have no idea what is happening. I have scoured this site, and found one post (here) that has helped me a lot, but I don't know how to generalize it further, and the textbook's (A First Course in Abstract Algebra) explanations of similar examples just don't make sense to me.
When we look at the case of $\mathbb{Z}\times \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/\langle(1,1,1)\rangle,$ the method explained in the linked post makes perfect sense. Then in a case such as $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}/\langle(2,2)\rangle$, I think it is fair to say that every coset will contain either an element $(m,0)$ or $(m,1)$, and use this to say it is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}_2$. But what about $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}/\langle(2,6)\rangle$? When the elements of the ordered pair of the generator are not equal, I am not so sure what to do. My intuition is to say that "each element in the given quotient group will contain an element of the form $(p,m+6k)$ for some $m,k \in \mathbb{Z}$, and some $p:0\leq p<2$. Additionally, it must contain an element of the form $(n+2s,q)$, for some $n,s \in \mathbb{Z}$, and some $q:0,\leq q < 5.$ Thus, the given group is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_6 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$." But I do not trust this reasoning at all, something feels very shaky, and it doesn't help that I am having a bit of a difficult time visualizing these groups to begin with. I have heard of Smith normal form on this board, but I don't think that would be accepted on my imminent exam. Any help would be greatly appreciated.