I am attemping to show that
$$
I \equiv
\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\left[\prod_{k = 1}^{7}\cos\left(kx\right)\right]
{\rm d}x = \frac{\pi}{32}
$$
So far I have tried expressing $\cos kx$ as $\frac{1}{2}(e^{ikx}+e^{-ikx})$, resulting in $$I=\frac{1}{2^7}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}e^{-28ix}\prod_{k=1}^{7}(e^{2ikx}+1)\, dx,$$ but I am not sure how to proceed futher. As this problem was sourced from the UNSW Integration Bee 2022, I assume there is a 'trick' so that the integral can be evaluated without tediously expanding the product using trig identities, but I am also interested in these answers.
EDIT:
This is not a duplicate of Closed form of $\int\limits_0^{2\pi} \prod\limits_{j=1}^n \cos(jx)dx$ and combinatorial link as the following does not apply:
As suggested by Winther in the comments, the problem can be viewed from a combinatorial standpoint. Looking at the complex exponential representation one gets $2^n$ integrals of the form $\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{iNx}dx$ , which is only nonzero, if $N=0$ . The integral evaluates to $\frac{M\pi}{2^{n-1}}$ , where M is the number of nonzero integrals.
As $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}e^{iNx}dx = \frac{1}{N}\sin\frac{N\pi}{2}+\frac{i}{N}\left(1-\cos\frac{N\pi}{2}\right) \neq 0 \text{ for } N \text{ mod } 4\neq 0, $$ I do not believe this method applies.