I think by induction we can do it. Let $I(n)=\sum_{k=1}^n{n\choose k}\frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k}=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k}.$ Then, we must show that $I(n+1)-I(n)=\frac{1}{n+1}$.
$\begin{align} I(n+1)-I(n)&=\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n+1}+\sum_{k=1}^n\left({n+1\choose k}-{n\choose k}\right)\frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k}\\ &=I(n+1)-I(n)=\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n+1}+\sum_{k=1}^n{n\choose k-1}\frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k}\\ &=\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n+1}-\frac{1}{n+1}\sum_{k=1}^n{n+1\choose k}(-1)^{k}\\ &=\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n+1}+\frac{(-1)^n+1}{n+1}\\ &=\frac{1}{n+1} \end{align}$
I saw these steps now. If you don't write you can't see anything. Thanks for help and elementary proofs.
WA says it is about Digamma function. What is the connection? These are very hot topics for students like me.
Thanks in advance.