Let $X$ be the number of coffee-orderers. Assuming (unreasonably) independence, and that each of the $20$ people orders coffee with probability $0.35$, the random variable $X$ has binomial distribution, and
$$\Pr(X=k)=\binom{20}{k}(0.35)^k (0.65)^{20-k}.$$
It turns out that as $k$ increases from $0$, the probability increases and then decreases, reaching a maximum not far from $(0.35)(20)$.
Compute until you find the answer. Note that there are computational shortcuts: if you have found $\binom{20}{k}(0.35)^k(0.65)^{20-k}$, you can compute the "next term" relatively simply. For $\binom{n}{k+1}=\frac{n-k}{k+1}\binom{n}{k}$.
Remark: There is general theory about the mode of a binomial, and it has been done in MSE, at least once by me. But searching is not particularly easy.
Added: Semi-miraculously, I found one of the places where general theory is developed.