This is a theory I just thought of and I am wondering if there is truth to it.
Here is the logic that I am working upon:
Using Euler's formula, you can deduce that $$ (-1)^x = i\sin(x\pi)+\cos(x\pi)$$ and thus, $$\sin(x\pi) = Im((-1)^x)$$ $$\cos(x\pi) = Re((-1)^x)$$
Now, let us let x be a rational number expressible as $\frac pq$ where $p$ and $q$ are integers
Using this, we can calculate $(-1)^x$ by doing $$ a+bi=(-1)^{\frac pq} $$ $$(a+bi)^q=(-1)^p$$ Now, $(a+bi)^q$ can be expanded into a polynomial and grouped into real parts, and since $p$ is an integer, $(-1)^p$ will be either $1$ or $-1$.
We now group it into 2 polynomial parts, the real and imaginary, and set the imaginary part equal to $0$ and the real part equal to $1$ if $p$ is even and $-1$ if $p$ is odd.
Here is my example:
$$x = 2/3$$ $$(a+bi)^3=(-1)^2=1$$ $$a^3-3ab^2+i(3a^2b-b^3)=1$$ which gives us the two equations: $$a^3-3ab^2=1$$ $$3a^2b-b^3=0$$
Now we have a system two equations with two variables and so they can just be solved using algebra, and since $Im((-1)^x)=Im(a+bi)=b$ and $\sin(x\pi) = Im((-1)^x)=b$, then can't we just solve for b with the system of equations and then that is our answer for $\sin(\pi x)$
Since it is a polynomial then shouldn't be be expressible through radicals and thus, shouldn't all $\sin(x\pi)$ be expressible through radicals?