The equation for B-spline with control points $(P_0, P_1,\dots,P_n)$ is \begin{equation} P(t)=\sum_{i=0}^n B_{i,k}(t)P_i \end{equation}
If I have the following knots: $1,2,3,4$ and the following control points: $P_1=0$, $P_2=-1$, $P_3=1$ and $P_4=2$. Since I have uniform knots as it has been suggested I used the basis functions and I shift them $2$ units to the right. So after doing some calculations the shifted basis functions are: $B_0(u-2)=(27-u^3-27u+9u^2)/6$
$B_1(u-2)=(3u^3-24u^2+60u-44)/6$
$B_2(u-2)=(-3u^3+21u^2-45u+37)/6$
$B_3(u-2)=(u^3-6u^2+12u-8)/6$
Then I put everything into the equation of $P(t)$ like this: $P(t)=0\times B_0(u-2)-1\times B_1(u-2)+1 \times B_2(u-2)+2 \times B_3(u-2)$
Then I substituted the knot point t=1 into $P(t)$, i.e. $P(1)$. The result of $P(1)\neq0$. I was expecting that I will end up with zero because the spline in the end it has to be function that goes through the control points so we can check that. In my case is doesn't go through the control point so I did something wrong. Does anyone figure out what I did wrong?