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I can't understand: Why is Simpson's rule exact for cubic polynomials?

Simpson's rule for cubics

Chris Brooks
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2 Answers2

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If a cubic and a quadratic agree at the endpoints and midpoint of an interval $[a, b]$, their difference is a cubic vanishing at the endpoints and midpoint, hence is a multiple of $p(x) = (x - a)(x - b)\bigl(2x - (a + b)\bigr)$. But $p$ is "odd with respect to the midpoint" in the sense that $p(b - x) = -p(a + x)$ for $a \leq x \leq b$, so the integral of $p$ over $[a, b]$ vanishes.

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because the fourth derivative of any cubic is zero, implying this to the maximum error form $M4 (b-a) \frac{h^2}{180}$ gives us a zero. hence Simpson's rule must be exact.

dantopa
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    Welcome to Math.SE! Consider revising your post with an [edit] to use complete sentences and correct grammar. This will help ensure that your answer can be understood by both the OP and by future readers of this question. – Brian61354270 Apr 27 '19 at 23:48