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I came across the following problem:

Assuming that $f\colon \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is twice differentiable at $x_0$, define $$ E(h)=f''(x_0)-\frac{1}{h^2}\left[ f(x_0+h)-2f(x_0)+f(x_0-h). \right] $$ Suppose $f^{(3)}$ (the third derivative of $f$) is bounded in $\mathbb{R}$. Prove or disprove that $\lim_{h\to 0^+}(1/h)\cdot E(h)=0$.

I was trying to show that this is true. I used L'Hôpital's Rule and the limit turned out to be zero. But I'm struggling to see why we need boundedness of the third derivative. Could somebody give me a hint on this?

I think we just need $f'''$ to exist for every $x\in \mathbb{R}$, since that is enough to guarantee the differentiability of $f''$ at every point. I tried using unbounded functions like $f'''(x)=e^x$ and $f'''(x)=x^3$, and the limit is still zero.

P3p3O
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