I have been wondering for a while why the $\exists$-elimination rule $\def\f{\phi} \def\y{\psi} \def\tI{\text{I}}$
$$\frac{\begin{matrix} & [\f[t/x]]\\ \vdots & \vdots \\ \exists x \f & \y \end{matrix}}{\y} \ \ \ \ \ \begin{matrix} \text{provided the term $t$ does not appear in $\exists x\f$,}\\ \text{or in $\y$, or in any other undischarged assumption}\\ \text{other than $\f[t/x]$ in the proof of $\y$} \end{matrix} $$
is valid. I do know that the conditions on $t$ exist to prevent fallacious arguments such as these. It seems to me though that these explanations show that the conditions on $t$ are necessary to prevent invalid arguments, and that it remains to be shown that the conditions are sufficient.
So, why are the conditions sufficient to prevent fallacious arguments?
Edit: a few days ago I myself asked why these conditions were placed on the term $t$ on a previous post, and the answers (well, comments) explained that it was to prevent fallacious arguments.
This much I understand. Yet, again, it's an explanation as to why the conditions are necessary. The current question asks why they are sufficient. In that sense I think this question is different from the two linked posts.