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I have the following question on my homework:

Consider a general region of the form $$ R = \{(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 | a \leq x \leq b, \phi_1(x) \leq y \leq \phi_2(x)\}, $$ where $a<b$ and $\phi_1(x) \leq \phi_2(x) \in C^1(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{R})$) and some function $Q \in C^1(\mathbb{R}^2, \mathbb{R})$. Show that Green's Theorem is true for the vector field $(0, Q)$ and this region. Ie, show that $$ \oint_{\partial R}Q(x,y)dy= \iint_R \frac{\partial (Q(x,y))}{\partial x}dxdy. $$

The question also writes a hint afterwards to first use the chain rule and fundamental theorem of calculus to calculate $\frac{d}{dx} \int_{\phi_1(x)}^{\phi_2(x)}Q(x,y)dy$, which I found to be equal to $Q(x,\phi_2(x))\phi_2'(x)-Q(x,\phi_1(x))\phi_1'(x)$.

Onto my attempt at solving:

To make things clearer for my own benefit notationally, I started by letting $\mathbf{g}(\mathbf{x}) = (0,Q(x,y))$ be the vector field in question. Then, I started working on $\oint_{\partial R} \mathbf{g}(\mathbf{x}) \cdot d\mathbf{x}$. If we start by letting $C_1$ be the part of the curve $y=\phi_1(x)$ on $x \in [a,b]$, $C_2$ be the vertical line $x=b$ for $y \in [\phi_1(b),\phi_2(b)]$, $C_3$ be the curve $y=\phi_2(x)$ from $(b,\phi_2(b))$ to $(a,\phi_2(a))$ and $C_4$ be the vertical line down along $x=a$ from $(a,\phi_2(a))$ to $(a,\phi_1(a))$. Then, $$ \begin{align*} \oint_{\partial R} \mathbf{g}(\mathbf{x})\cdot d\mathbf{x} &= \oint_{\partial R} (0, Q(x,y)) \cdot (dx,dy) \\ &= \oint_{\partial R}Q(x,y)dy \\ &= \int_{C_1} \mathbf{g}(\mathbf{x})\cdot d\mathbf{x} + \int_{C_2} \mathbf{g}(\mathbf{x})\cdot d\mathbf{x} + \int_{C_3} \mathbf{g}(\mathbf{x})\cdot d\mathbf{x} + \int_{C_4} \mathbf{g}(\mathbf{x})\cdot d\mathbf{x} \end{align*} $$ Now, $C_1, C_2, C_3$ and $C_4$ can be parametrised by the following: $$ \begin{align*} \mathbf{p}_1:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R}^2, \mathbf{p}_1(t) &= (t, \phi_1(t)) \\ \mathbf{p}_2:[\phi_1(b),\phi_2(b)] \to \mathbb{R}^2, \mathbf{p}_2(t)&=(b,t) \\ \mathbf{p}_3:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R}^2, \mathbf{p}_3(t)&=(a+b-t,\phi_2(a+b-t)) \\ \mathbf{p}_4:[\phi_1(a),\phi_2(a)] \to \mathbb{R}^2, \mathbf{p}_4(t)&=(a,\phi_1(a)+\phi_2(a)-t) \end{align*} $$ Then, $$ \begin{align*} \oint_{\partial R}Q(x,y)dy &= \int_{a}^{b}(0,Q(t,\phi_1(t)))\cdot (1,\phi_1'(t))dt+\int_{\phi_1(b)}^{\phi_2(b)}(0,Q(b,t))\cdot(0,1)dt+ \\ &\int_{a}^{b}(0,Q(a+b-t,\phi_2(a+b-t)))\cdot(-1,-\phi_2'(a+b-t))dt+\int_{\phi_1(a)}^{\phi_2(a)}(0,Q(a,\phi_1(a)+\phi_2(a)-t))\cdot(0,-1)dt \\ &=\int_{a}^{b}\phi_1'(t)Q(t,\phi_1(t))dt+\int_{\phi_1(b)}^{\phi_2(b)}Q(b,t)dt-\int_{a}^{b}\phi_2'(a+b-t)Q(a+b-t,\phi_2(a+b-t))dt-\int_{\phi_1(a)}^{\phi_2(a)}Q(a,\phi_1(a)+\phi_2(a)-t)dt \end{align*} $$ Using the King's Property of Definite Integrals on the third and fourth integrals, we have $$ \begin{align*} \oint_{\partial R} Q(x,y) \, dy &= \int_{a}^{b} \phi_1'(t) Q(t, \phi_1(t)) \, dt + \int_{\phi_1(b)}^{\phi_2(b)} Q(b, t) \, dt - \int_{a}^{b} \phi_2'(t) Q(t, \phi_2(t)) \, dt - \int_{\phi_1(a)}^{\phi_2(a)} Q(a, t) \, dt \\ &= \int_{a}^{b} \left( \phi_1'(t) Q(t, \phi_1(t)) - \phi_2'(t) Q(t, \phi_2(t)) \right) \, dt + \int_{\phi_1(b)}^{\phi_2(b)} Q(b, t) \, dt - \int_{\phi_1(a)}^{\phi_2(a)} Q(a, t) \, dt \\ &= \int_{a}^{b} \frac{d}{dt} \left( \int_{\phi_1(t)}^{\phi_2(t)} Q(t, y) \, dy \right) \, dt + \int_{\phi_1(b)}^{\phi_2(b)} Q(b, t) \, dt - \int_{\phi_1(a)}^{\phi_2(a)} Q(a, t) \, dt \\ &= \int_{\phi_1(b)}^{\phi_2(b)} Q(b, y) \, dy - \int_{\phi_1(a)}^{\phi_2(a)} Q(a, y) \, dy + \int_{\phi_1(b)}^{\phi_2(b)} Q(b, t) \, dt - \int_{\phi_1(a)}^{\phi_2(a)} Q(a, t) \, dt \\ &= 2 \left( \int_{\phi_1(b)}^{\phi_2(b)} Q(b, y) \, dy - \int_{\phi_1(a)}^{\phi_2(a)} Q(a, y) \, dy \right) \end{align*} $$ At this point, I'm not convinced I haven't made a mistake, but I can't find any. How should I proceed, or does what I have done not work?

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    Please keep in mind our guidelines for solution-verification questions: "Is this proof correct?" is too broad or missing context. Instead, the question must identify precisely which step in the proof is in doubt, and why so.

    In general you should not expect users to read through your proof step-by-step, hunting for your mistakes. It feels too much like the work many of us do correcting homework.

    – Lee Mosher Oct 10 '24 at 17:56
  • I have since noticed a mistake in my initial calculation of the derivative. I understand it is not the job of others to comb through my work looking for mistakes, I was more just asking if my approach would even work in the first place and if so where to go from where I was. – George Bailey Oct 11 '24 at 13:46
  • Was that calculational mistake relevant to the post, and if so did you update the question with the calculational mistake you made? or more directly I guess I want to ask "what was the issue?" – Sidharth Ghoshal Oct 13 '24 at 00:13
  • I feel pretty confident everything up to the "King's property" section is correct – Sidharth Ghoshal Oct 13 '24 at 00:15
  • i think you have a mistake, a sign error in particular, on line 3 of the King's Property section. You declare that $(\phi_1'(t) Q(t, \phi_1(t)) - \phi_2'(t) Q(t, \phi_2(t)) = \frac{d}{dt} \left( \int_{\phi_1}^{\phi_2} Q(t,y) dy \right) $ yet earlier you had stated that $ \frac{d}{dx} \int_{\phi_1}^{\phi_2} Q(x, y) dy = Q(x, \phi_2)\phi_2' - Q(x, \phi_1)\phi_1'$. It seems like these two statements are negatives of each other. You should double check the "hint" the professor gave you, and if its correct then flip the sign on your "Kings property" section and proceed. – Sidharth Ghoshal Oct 13 '24 at 00:24
  • Also, generally this kind of "check your work" isn't allowed insofar as you gave us a large block of text that was mostly correct and asked us "find the needle in the haystack". If you want the community to check in general you need to post "I think the problem is in a small section here: ..." and then at the bottom of your post you can write "here is additional context". But generally even such posts will not get the greatest reception on this site. – Sidharth Ghoshal Oct 13 '24 at 00:27
  • Just some helpful expressions:$$\int_{a}^b \int_{\phi_1(x)}^{\phi_2(x)} \frac{\partial Q(x,y)}{\partial x} \ dy \ dx$$ $$= \int_{a}^b -\left(Q(x,\phi_2(x)) \phi_2'(x) - Q(x,\phi_1(x)) \phi_1'(x)\right) dx + \int_{a}^b \frac{\partial}{ \partial x} \int_{\phi_1(x)}^{\phi_2(x)} Q(x,y) \ dy \ dx $$ $$= \int_{a}^b -\left(Q(x,\phi_2(x)) \phi_2'(x) - Q(x,\phi_1(x)) \phi_1'(x)\right) dx + \int_{\phi_1(b)}^{\phi_2(b)} Q(b,y) \ dy - \int_{\phi_1(a)}^{\phi_2(a)} Q(a,y) \ dy $$ –  Oct 13 '24 at 00:45
  • What i wrote above seems to be ur first expression after Kings property. So u have proved it at that point itself. –  Oct 13 '24 at 00:50

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