Suppose $X_1, \dots , X_n \sim f_{\theta}(x) = e^{-(x-\theta)}$ are IID.
I'm interested in the conditional expectation $E[X_1 | X_{(1)} = t]$, where $X_{(1)} = \min(X_1, \dots, X_n)$.
Let $f_{X_1|T} (x|t)$ be the conditional pdf of $X_1$ given $X_{(1)} = t$. By definition:
\begin{equation} f_{X_1|T} (x|t) = \frac{f_{X_1,T} (x,t)}{f_T(t)} \end{equation}
I have $f_T(t) = ne^{-n(t-\theta)}$ for $t \in (\theta, \infty)$.
For the joint pdf $f_{X_1,T}$ I consider two cases.
If $X_1 = X_{(1)}$, then I argue $f_{X_1,T}(x,t)$ is $0$ almost everywhere because it only has support on the diagonal where $x=t$.
If $X_1 \neq X_{(1)}$, then $X_{(1)}$ is some $X_i$ for $i \neq 1$ and thus $X_1, X_{(1)}$ are independent. In this case the joint pdf splits:
\begin{equation} f_{X_1|T} (x|t) = \frac{f_\theta(x)f_T(t)}{f_T(t)} = f_\theta(x) \end{equation}
Thus $E[X_1 | X_{(1)} = t] = E[X_1] = \int_{\theta}^\infty xe^{-(x-\theta)}dx = [-xe^{-(x-\theta)} - e^{-(x-\theta)}]_\theta^\infty = \theta + 1$.
Intuitively, this would mean knowing the minimum of the sample doesn't give me any information about $X_1$.
Is this argument correct?