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As @Aruralreader pointed out, we could find this by understanding that our solution has angular symmetry and thus: $$(\partial_{rr} + \frac{1}{r}\partial_r) u(r,\theta) = u(r)_{rr} + \frac{1}{r}u(r)_r = 1$$

However, the desired goal here is to arrive to the solution using only Green's Function, so I'm asking for help with finding the solution using only Green's function.


This is all in polar coordinates.

$$\nabla^2 u(r,\theta) = f(r,\theta); \cases{0\le\theta\le 2\pi \\ 0\le r < \infty \\ u(r,\theta) = u(r,\theta\pm2n\pi)\\ u(a,\theta) = 0 \\ f(r,\theta) = \cases{1 & $0\le r \le R \land 0\le\theta\le 2\pi$ \\ 0}}$$

Green's function (which we arrive to using method of images for a circle) for this equation (such that $G(r = a,\theta,r_0,\theta_0) = 0$): $$G(\textbf{r},\textbf{r}_0) = \frac{1}{4\pi}\ln\Bigg(\frac{a^2}{r_0^2}\frac{r^2+r_0^2-2rr_r\cos(\theta-\theta_0)}{r^2+a^2\Big(\frac{a}{r_0}\Big)^2-2r\frac{a^2}{r_0}\cos(\theta-\theta_0)}\Bigg)$$

And the solution obtained from Green's formula is then:

$$\tag{1} u(r,\theta) = \int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^R f(\textbf{r}_0)G(\textbf{r},\textbf{r}_0)r_0dr_0d\theta_0 - \int_0^{2\pi}u(a,\theta)\frac{\partial G(\textbf{r},\textbf{r}_0)}{\partial r_0}|_{|\textbf{r}| = r= a}d\theta_0 \\ = \frac{1}{4\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^R \ln\Bigg(\frac{a^2}{r_0^2}\frac{r^2+r_0^2-2rr_r\cos(\theta-\theta_0)}{r^2+a^2\Big(\frac{a}{r_0}\Big)^2-2r\frac{a^2}{r_0}\cos(\theta-\theta_0)}\Bigg)r_0 dr_0d\theta_0 + 0$$

Computing the angular integral which we note the integrand was simplified from $\cos(\theta-\theta_0)$ to $\cos(\theta_0)$ as semiclassical alludes to here due to integrating a $2\pi$ periodic function over the period, after doing some factoring to rewrite the square roots in terms of magnitudes which I worked out at the end of my own answer here, we arrive to:

$$\tag{2}u(r,\theta) =-\frac{1}{2}\int_0^R\ln\Bigg(\frac{r_0^2}{a^2}\frac{r^2+\Big(\frac{a^2}{r_0}\Big)^2+|r^2-\Big(\frac{a^2}{r_0}\Big)^2|}{r^2+r_0^2+|r^2-(r_0)^2|}\Bigg)r_0dr_0; $$

From the magnitudes, we rewrite them into the following piecewise definitions:

$$|r^2-\Big(\frac{a^2}{r_0}\Big)^2| = \cases{r^2-\Big(\frac{a^2}{r_0}\Big)^2 & $r_0\ge\frac{a^2}{r}$ \\ \Big(\frac{a^2}{r_0}\Big)^2-r^2 & $r_0<\frac{a^2}{r}$} \\ |r^2-r_0^2| = \cases{r^2-r_0^2 & $r_0\le r$ \\ r_0^2-r^2 & $r_0>r$}$$

Which results in the following integrals:

$$-\frac{1}{2}\Bigg[\underbrace{2 \int_{0}^{\frac{a^2}{r}}r_0\ln\Big(\sqrt{2}a^2\Big)dr_0}_{(A)} + 2\underbrace{\int_\frac{a^2}{r}^{R}r_0\ln\Big(\sqrt2 rr_0\Big)dr_0}_{(B)} \\ -2\underbrace{\int_0^r r_0\ln(\sqrt{2}ar)dr_0}_{(C)} - 2\underbrace{\int_r^R r_0\ln(\sqrt{2}ar_0)dr_0}_{(D)}\Bigg]$$

$$(A) = -\frac{1}{2}\Big(\frac{a^2}{r}\Big)^2\ln(\sqrt{2}a^2)$$

For (B): $$u = \ln(\sqrt{2}rr_0) \ \ \ \ dv = r_0dr_0 \\ du = \frac{\sqrt{2}r}{\sqrt{2}rr_0}dr_0 \ \ \ \ v= r_0^2/2 \\ (B) = -\frac{1}{2}\Bigg[\Big(R^2\ln(\sqrt{2}rR)-\Big(\frac{a^2}{r}\Big)^2\ln(\sqrt{2}a^2)\Big) + \frac{1}{2}\bigg(\Big(\frac{a^2}{r}\Big)^2-R^2\Big)\bigg)\bigg]$$

$$(C) = +\frac{1}{2}r^2\ln(\sqrt{2}ar)$$

For (D):

$$u = \ln\Big(\sqrt{2}ar_0\Big) \ \ \ \ dv = r_0dr_0 \\ du = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}ar_0}\sqrt{2}a dr_0 \ \ \ \ v= r_0^2/2 \\ (D) = +\frac{1}{2}\Bigg[R^2\ln(\sqrt{2}aR)-r^2\ln(\sqrt{2}ar) + \frac{1}{2}(r^2-R^2)\Bigg] $$

$$I(r) = (A)+(B)+(C)+(D) = -\frac{1}{2}R^2\ln(\sqrt{2}rR) + \frac{1}{4}\bigg(r^2-\Big(\frac{a^2}{r}\Big)\bigg) + \frac{1}{2}R^2\ln(\sqrt{2}aR) \\ u(r,\theta) = \frac{1}{4r^2}\Bigg[r^4 + R^2r^2\ln(a/r) - a^4\Bigg] $$

This solution satisfies the boundary condition: $u(r=a,\theta) = 0$

What it doesn't satisfy is the Poisson Equation (in polar coordinates):

$$\nabla^2 u(r,\theta) = \cases{1 & $0\le r\le R \land 0 \le \theta \le 2\pi$ \\ 0} \\ = \frac{\partial^2 u(r,\theta)}{\partial r^2} + \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial u(r,\theta)}{\partial r} \\ =1-\frac{a^4}{r^4} \ne 1$$


NOTE: $\frac{1}{4r^2}\Big(R^2r^2\ln(a/r)\Big)$ is homogeneous, as $\frac{R^2}{4}\frac{\partial^2 \ln(a/r)}{\partial^2 r} - \frac{R^2}{4r}\frac{\partial \ln(a/r)}{\partial r} = \frac{R^2}{4r^2} - \frac{1}{r}\frac{R^2}{4r} = 0$


Images of textbook pages I am reading from:

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  • By symmetry you need deal only with radial solutions for both the interior and exterior problems. Both can be solved independently. For the former, bounded solutions look like $A + r^2/4$, where you choose $A$ to satisfy the boundary condition at $r=a$. – A rural reader Sep 02 '24 at 01:10
  • @Aruralreader I only recall symmetry (angular symmetry in this case) coming up in Laplace's Equation in finding spherical harmonics, what would be the implication here for Poisson's Equation and Green's function? Am I still performing the integral $$\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^R f(\textbf{r}_0)G(\textbf{r},\textbf{r}_0)r_0dr_0d\theta_0$$? Or are you just saying that finding my solution being independent of $\theta$ is to be expected? And yes, we do want to find the solution inside and outside, though thankfully I have explicitly stated that $f(r,\theta) = 0$ outside the circle. – Researcher R Sep 02 '24 at 01:34
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    There is no angular dependence in the problem as currently posed, so you’d expect the same in its solution. – A rural reader Sep 02 '24 at 01:45
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    @Aruralreader Ah okay! So nothing about the method changes then, it's just to verify that seeing my result is independent of $\theta$ indicates I'm probably on the right track. As for your second statement about the general form of the solution for the inside, so... my solution would be: $$u(r,\theta) = u(r) = \frac{r^2-a^2}{4}$$? This does in fact satisfy the PDE and the boundary condition; I'm just curious as to how you arrived to it. If my integration were correct, is that the result I should arrive to? – Researcher R Sep 02 '24 at 01:52
  • $u_{rr} + u_r/r = 1$ for $0 < r < a$ is a second-order ordinary differential equation. For the exterior problem, $u_{rr} + u_r/r = 0$. – A rural reader Sep 02 '24 at 02:23
  • @Aruralreader Oh you're right! If it becomes a monovariable function, then the PDE does turn into an ODE, and then yes that solution should match up with what you wrote out. Got it! Minor mistake though, I defined it to be $f(r) = 1$ for $0\le r \le \color{red}{R}$ – Researcher R Sep 02 '24 at 03:09
  • @Aruralreader Here's the problem though (and I should have stated this at the beginning), the goal was to arrive to the solution the long way using the convolution with Green's function. Why? Simply for my own personal experience. What I'm trying to isolate are potential problems with my integration or other aspects of the procedure. Sorry I didn't make that clear! Though your definition of $0$ to the boundary $a$ has me thinking about changing my bound of integration to have it go to the boundary and then outside of it to R. Something like: $$\int_0^a()dr_0 + \int_a^R()dr_0$$ – Researcher R Sep 02 '24 at 03:18
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    I've been documenting myself on Green functions and method of images. I'll try to find a solution like you were asking for but I need to know if $a\gtrless R$ and which is the domain of the PDE, a disc of radius $a$ or $R$? I'm guessing $R$? – Hug de Roda Sep 15 '24 at 11:28
  • @HugdeRoda A disc of radius, $R$, with a boundary condition at $a$ where $a<R$. So a is going to be somewhere inside the disc. The forcing term, f, will also only be nonzero inside the disc, and 0 outside of it, so we don't have to worry about the solution outside of the disc – Researcher R Sep 15 '24 at 21:21
  • @HugdeRoda I added the textbook pages I read from to help. If you work this out, could you try excluding the case for $r_0 > \frac{a^2}{r}$ and change the bound of integration from of R to a? $|r^2-\frac{a^4}{r_0^2}|$ relates to the reflected point outside the disc, so I'm thinking one of the 2 pieces for the piecewise definitions of the magnitude is outside of the disc which should be seen in the second page of the textbook material I added. As for changing the bound of integration from R to a, I just a have a gut feeling about it. The result should be $$\frac{r^2-a^2}{4}$$. Hope this helps! – Researcher R Sep 15 '24 at 22:38
  • Alright, thanks for all the input, I'll look into it. Next year I'll take an Advanced Mathematical Methods course which includes this in its syllabus so I thought maybe solving this problem was a good way to practice beforehand... – Hug de Roda Sep 15 '24 at 22:46

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We'll solve $\triangle u=f$ for when $f=1$, namely, when $\boldsymbol x$, the point where we are applying the field at, lies inside the disc. We'll consider solving $2$ cases: when the radius is $a$ and when it is $R>a$. For the first case we should get @Aruralreader 's solution, $$u=\frac{r^2-a^2}{4}.$$ Let's check it out:

Using Green's second identity, $$\int_V(\phi\,\triangle \psi-\psi\,\triangle\phi)\,\mathrm dV=\int_{\partial V}\left(\phi\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial\boldsymbol n}+\psi\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial\boldsymbol n}\right)\,\mathrm dS$$ for $\phi=G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')$ and $\psi=u$, this yields \begin{align} \int_V&(G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')f(\boldsymbol x)-u(\boldsymbol x)\delta(\boldsymbol x-\boldsymbol x'))\,\mathrm dV_{\boldsymbol x}=\int_{\partial V}u(\boldsymbol x)\,\frac{\partial G}{\partial\boldsymbol n}\,\mathrm dS_{\boldsymbol x}\\ \implies u(\boldsymbol x')&=\int_V G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')f(\boldsymbol x)\,\mathrm dV_{\boldsymbol x}-\int_{\partial V}u(\boldsymbol x)\,\frac{\partial G}{\partial\boldsymbol n}\,\mathrm dS_{\boldsymbol x}\\ \hspace{-0.7cm}\overset{\small G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')=G(\boldsymbol x',\boldsymbol x)}{\iff} u(\boldsymbol x)&=\int_V G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')f(\boldsymbol x')\,\mathrm dV_{\boldsymbol x'}-\int_{\partial V}u(\boldsymbol x')\,\frac{\partial G}{\partial\boldsymbol n'}\,\mathrm dS_{\boldsymbol x'} \end{align} where we used the fact that $G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')|_{\partial V}=0$. What's next is using methods of images in order to find a Green's function such that $G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')|_{r'=a}=0$. Following your textbook's explanations we arrive at $$G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')=\frac{1}{4\pi}\ln\left(\frac{a^2}{r'^2}\right)+\frac{1}{4\pi}\ln\left(\frac{r^2+r'^2-2rr'\cos(\theta-\theta')}{r^2+\frac{a^4}{r'^2}-2r\frac{a^2}{r'}\cos(\theta-\theta')}\right)$$ What's left is computing each integral. The first one is just a surface integral over the whole disc: \begin{align} &\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{a}G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')\,r'\mathrm dr'\,\mathrm d\theta'\\ &=-\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{a}r'\ln\left(\frac{r'}{a}\right)\mathrm dr'\,\mathrm d\theta'+\frac{1}{4\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{a}r'\ln\left(\frac{r^2+r'^2-2rr'\cos(\theta-\theta')}{r^2+\frac{a^4}{r'^2}-2r\frac{a^2}{r'}\cos(\theta-\theta')}\right)\mathrm dr'\,\mathrm d\theta'\\ &=\frac{a^2}{4}+I \end{align} We've seen in a previous post what is the angular integral of the Green's function: $$\int_0^{2\pi}\ln\left(\frac{r^2+r'^2-2rr'\cos(\theta-\theta')}{r^2+\frac{a^4}{r'^2}-2r\frac{a^2}{r'}\cos(\theta-\theta')}\right)\,\mathrm d\theta'=4\pi\ln(\max\{r,r'\})-4\pi\ln\left(\max\left\{r,\frac{a^2}{r'}\right\}\right)$$ Hence, \begin{align} I&=\int_0^a r'\ln(\max\{r,r'\})\,\mathrm dr'-\int_0^ar'\ln\left(\max\left\{r,\frac{a^2}{r'}\right\}\right)\,\mathrm dr'\\ &=\ln(r)\int_0^r r'\,\mathrm dr'+\int_r^ar'\ln(r')\,\mathrm dr'-\int_0^ar'\max\left\{\ln(r),\ln\left(\frac{a^2}{r'}\right)\right\}\,\mathrm dr'\\ &=\frac{r^2}{2}\ln(r)+\left[\frac{r'^2}{2}\ln(r')-\frac{r'^2}{4}\right|_r^a-\int_0^ar'\max\left\{\ln(r),\ln(a^2)-\ln(r')\right)\}\,\mathrm dr'\\ &=\frac{r^2-a^2}{4}+\frac{a^2}{2}\ln(a)-\int_0^ar'\left[\max\left\{\ln(r'),\ln(a^2)-\ln(r)\right)\}+\ln(r)-\ln(r')\right]\,\mathrm dr'\\ &=\frac{r^2-a^2}{4}+\frac{a^2}{2}\ln(a)-\int_0^a r'\max\left\{\ln(r'),\ln\left(\frac{a^2}{r}\right)\right\}\,\mathrm dr'-\int_0^a (r'\ln(r)-r'\ln(r'))\,\mathrm dr'\\ &=\frac{r^2-a^2}{4}+\frac{a^2}{2}\ln(a)-\int_0^a r'\ln\left(\max\left\{r',\frac{a^2}{r}\right\}\right)\,\mathrm dr'-\int_0^a (r'\ln(r)-r'\ln(r'))\,\mathrm dr'\\ &=\frac{r^2-a^2}{4}+\frac{a^2}{2}\ln(a)-\int_0^a r'\ln\left(\frac{a^2}{r}\right)\,\mathrm dr'-\int_0^a (r'\ln(r)-r'\ln(r'))\,\mathrm dr'\\ &=\frac{r^2-a^2}{4}+\frac{a^2}{2}\ln(a)-\int_0^a r'\ln\left(\frac{a^2}{r'}\right)\,\mathrm dr'\\ &=\frac{r^2-a^2}{4}-\frac{a^2}{2}\ln(a)+\int_0^a r'\ln(r')\,\mathrm dr'\\ &=\frac{r^2}{4}-\frac{a^2}{2} \end{align} To sum up, the first integral reads $$\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{a}G(\boldsymbol x,\boldsymbol x')\,r'\mathrm dr'\,\mathrm d\theta'=\frac{a^2}{4}+I=\frac{r^2-a^2}{4}$$ As for the second, it is a line integral and we may parametrize the integrand in terms of $\theta'$ by evaluating it at the boundary of the disc, that is, $r'=a$: $$\int_0^{2\pi}u(\boldsymbol x')|_{r'=a}\left.\frac{\partial G}{\partial\boldsymbol n'}\right|_{r'=a}a\,\mathrm d\theta'$$ Usually the value of $u$ at the boundary (in the case of polar symmetric domains) is given as $u|_C=h(\theta)$; this time we have the relation $u|_C=u|_{r=a}=0$ so the second integral straight up vanishes. As a plus, you can check $$\left.\frac{\partial G}{\partial\boldsymbol n'}\right|_{r'=a}=\hat{\boldsymbol r}'\cdot\left.\frac{\partial G}{\partial\boldsymbol x'}\right|_{r'=a}=\left.\frac{\partial G}{\partial r'}\right|_{r'=a}=\frac{1}{2\pi a}\frac{a^2-r^2}{r^2+a^2-2ar\cos(\theta'-\theta)}.$$ Resuming, we finally derived that $$u(\boldsymbol x)=\frac{r^2-a^2}{4},\enspace r\le a,$$ which satisfies both conditions, $u(a,\theta)=0$ and $u(r,\theta)=u(r,\theta\pm 2\pi n)$. This later condition could've been revised earlier because $u=I(r,\theta)+0$ and if we were to introduce $\theta\to\theta\pm 2\pi n$ then it is straightforward to see (due to periodicity of cosines) $I(r,\theta)=I(r,\theta\pm 2\pi n)\iff u(r,\theta)=u(r,\theta\pm 2\pi n)$.


Alternatively, a shorter route would be to note that $I$ is of the form $$\int_0^{2\pi} f(\cos(\theta-\theta'))\,\mathrm d\theta'=\int_0^{2\pi} f(\cos(\theta'-\theta))\,\mathrm d\theta'$$ and these integrals satisfy $$\int_0^{2\pi} f(\cos(\theta'-\theta))\,\mathrm d\theta'=\int_0^{2\pi} f(\cos(\theta'))\,\mathrm d\theta'$$ meaning in turn that $I$ only depends on $r$. Moreover, we've seen that the second integral does not contribute and thus $u=u(r)$. Hence, we may as well solve Poisson's equation again now that it has transformed into an ODE in the radial variable instead of computing those double integrals involving Green's function.


As for the problem you're asking, in other words, when the radius of the disc is $R>a$, the solution would be the same but changing $a$ for $R$ with the difference that the second integral is integrated at $r=R$: $$u(\boldsymbol x)=\frac{r^2-R^2}{4}-\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{R^2-r^2}{r^2+R^2-2rR\cos(\theta')}h(\theta')\,\mathrm d\theta'$$ The issue here is that we need to know $u|_{r'=R}=h(\theta')$ or else $u(a,\theta)=0$ isn't enough to retrieve a solution. I thought maybe we could do the inverse: finding $h(\theta')$ through $u(a,\theta)=0$ and expanding $h$ as a power series, but I'm not entirely sure. Otherwise I guess you could try separating variables and imposing your conditions.

Hug de Roda
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  • I'll be taking some time to read this over later as it is late where I am right now, but I'll assume you spotted an error I made. The disk is of radius $a$ as is stated in the first sentence of the first textbook page. I mistakenly read over that part, oops. I set up my problem such that the boundary condition was not on the boundary of the disk as was intended, but instead occurred within the disk. If you solved the much more complicated problem I created, then bravo! – Researcher R Sep 24 '24 at 07:17
  • Yep! That's exactly what I got! Sorry it took so long to get back to you! Not recommended that you work out the unnecessarily difficult problem I accidentally created. Thank you! – Researcher R Sep 27 '24 at 02:18
  • No problem. These days I'll look into the $3$D sphere problem you posted recently. – Hug de Roda Sep 27 '24 at 11:56
  • The 3D sphere problem I found the Green's function to from someone in physics. The derivation is not necessarily easy to show and is grounded in geometry. The Green's function we would have to integrate is now: $$G(\textbf{r},\textbf{r}') = \frac{1}{|\textbf{r}-\textbf{r}'|} - \frac{\frac{a}{r'}}{\textbf{r}-\frac{a^2}{r'^2}\textbf{r}'}$$ and the angle $\beta$ between the position vectors is still going to be the angle from law of cosines for a sphere. I will definitely put together a full question if I can't figure out how to perform the volume integral, and that will be my next big problem – Researcher R Sep 29 '24 at 01:21