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This is an exercise in my professors notes. The notation $A[t_i \ | \ t_i \in I]$ means all finite linear combinations of monomials in $t_i$ with coefficients in $A$. I can see why it is true, but I had difficulty making my proof rigorous, and so I am asking for feedback to improve or simplify my solution, or identify any errors in it. This is essentially a generalization of: Prove that the Polynomial Ring $F[t]$ Is an Integral Domain.

Proof: Let $p, q \neq 0$ be in $B = A[t_i \ | \ i \in I]$. Suppose $p = p_0 + \sum_{i}^{n_p} \sum_j^{m_i} p_{ij} t_{s_i}^j$ and $q = q_0 + \sum_{k}^{n_q} \sum_j^{m_k} p_{kl} t_{s_k}^l$. Then suppose $t_{s_i} = t_{s_k}$ for some $(i,k)$. Choose $(i,j)$ and $(k,l)$ such that $t_{s_i} = t_{s_k}$ and $m_i + m_k$ is maximal. Then the coefficient corresponding to $t_{s_i}^{m_i} t_{s_k}^{m_k}$ is simply $p_{im_i}q_{km_k}$. Since $p_{im_i}, q_{km_k} \neq 0$, it follows that their product is nonzero since $A$ is a domain. Thus $pq \neq 0$. On the other hand, suppose that for no $(i,k)$ do we have $t_{s_i} = t_{s_k}$. Then the product all coefficients of the product $pq$ have the form $p_{ij}q_{kl}$. But since neither $p_{ij}$ nor $q_{kl}$ are zero, their product cannot be. Hence, $pq \neq 0$. Thus $B$ is a domain.

The point is uncertainty lies in examining the "maximal exponent." Is this necessary? Does it add problems I haven't addressed in the proof, which could be avoided by taking a simpler approach? While this is dealing with finite sets, so any problems involving Zorn's lemma or axiom of choice are avoided, my concern is mostly that perhaps there's a way to combine the two steps into one.

  • @ArturoMagidin I'll add some more details to the question. My point of uncertainty is in the part where I look at the maximal exponent. Is this necessary? Are there any logical issues here? – John Cavanaugh Aug 25 '24 at 23:17
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    Also, this is a duplicate. Please use the search feature. – Martin Brandenburg Aug 25 '24 at 23:31
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    Your description of the elements is incorrect. You are only considering monomials that use a single one of the letters. Your description of elements does not include, e.g., $t_{i_1}t_{i_2}$ with $i_1\neq i_2$. – Arturo Magidin Aug 25 '24 at 23:31
  • @MartinBrandenburg I did try searching for the question, but I could not find it. If it's a duplicate, can you please link to the other question? – John Cavanaugh Aug 25 '24 at 23:37
  • @ArturoMagidin I see. This is definitely the case. I'll revise my work to consider this. – John Cavanaugh Aug 25 '24 at 23:38
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    It suffices to consider the case of finitely many variables, since the polynomial ring is the union of the polynomial subrings with finitely many variables. In the finite case, induction reduces to just one variable, the case you already know. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3541427/polynomials-of-several-variable-is-integral-domain – Martin Brandenburg Aug 25 '24 at 23:41
  • @MartinBrandenburg This does indeed cover the case of finitely and countably many variables, but the set $I$ had no restrictions on cardinality and so I assumed it could very well be uncountable. It seems nontrivial to me to generalize from the countable case to the uncountable case. – John Cavanaugh Aug 26 '24 at 00:29
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    This has nothing to do with countability. Every set is the colimit of its finite subsets. Since left adjoint functors preserve colimits, every polynomial ring is the colimit of polynomial rings in finitely many variables. – Martin Brandenburg Aug 26 '24 at 11:58

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