Say I have a linear map $T : V → V$ such that $T^3 = T$.
Say it has three distinct eigenvalues. Then they must be $-1$, $0$ and $1$.
In an exercise they ask me to prove the following:
$$\frac12T^2 - \frac12T \ ∈ \ S_{-1}$$
$$Id - T^2 \ ∈ \ S_0$$
$$\frac12T + \frac12T^2 \ ∈ \ S_1$$
There's no problem with that.
The thing is that then they ask me to deduce that $V = S_{-1} ⊕ S_0 ⊕ S_1$.
Intuitively this seems obvious: if you had a subspace that wasn't one of these eigenspaces, then doing $T$ thrice can't be doing $T$.
However, I'd like to see if there's a stronger argument using the three things they ask you to prove first. Possibly it's not as obvious as I think it to be.