Is there any underlying reason for the commonality between the following two distributions, where we see that the CDF of the first is the reciprocal of the PDF of the second? I imagine it has something to do with order statistics but am interested if there is an elegant connection
Sum of Uniform (0,1) Variables
$$P(X_1+\dots+X_n\leq t)=\frac{t^n}{n!}$$ where $0<t<1$ and ${X_1,\dots,X_n}$ are n i.i.d. uniform (0,1) random variables. Proven here
Poisson Process: Conditional Arrival Times given n arrivals
If we know n arrivals occurred in the interval $[0,t]$, we find that the PDF for the vector of arrival instants $(T_1, T_2, \dots, T_n)$ is $f_{T_1, \dots, T_n}(t_1, \dots, t_n|N(t)=n)=\frac{n!}{t^n}$
This can be found by applying Baye's Rule and using the memoryless property $$F_{T_1,\dots,T_n}(T_1\leq t_1, \dots T_n\leq t_n|N(t)=n)=\frac{P(T_1\leq t_1) \dots P(t_{n-1}<T_n\leq t_n)}{P(N(t)=n)}$$ then differentiating.