Let $E:=\{0,1\}^n$ be the corners of a n-dimensional unit cube. Let $(X_n)_n$ be the symmetric Random Walk on E. A jump from i to j, $i,j\in E$ has probability 1/n if $|i-j|=1$. I am interested in the expecation of $$T:=\inf\{n\geq 0: X_n=\mathbf 1\}$$ where $\mathbf 1=(1,1,1,\ldots,1)$ is the n-dimensional vector with all ones. In particular, i want to compute the expected traversal time $$\mathbb E[T\,|\,X_0=\mathbf 0].$$ That is the expected number of steps necessary for the random walk to traverse the unit cube starting in corner $\mathbf 0=(0,0,0,\ldots,0)$ and arriving at the opposite corner $\mathbb 1$ for the first time.
First, I showed that this Markov Chain is exactly lumpable into a Birth-And-Death process with reflecting boundaries, where the forward/backward probabilities at site k (=lumped state containing all n-dimensional vectors with exactly k ones) are $$p_k^+=\frac{n-k}{n},\qquad p^-_k=\frac{k}{n}.$$ We also have $p^+_0=1$, $p^-_0=0$ and $p^+_n=0$, $p^-_n=1$. Travel times from corner to corner are preserved under exact lumpability.
Usually, i would just solve a set of equations, $$ \begin{align*} h(0)&=1+h(1),\\ h(k)&=p^-_k h(k-1)+p^+_kh(k+1)+1,\\ h(n)&=0, \end{align*}$$ where $h(k):=\mathbb E[T\,|\, X_0=k]$.
Problem: I would need a particular solution of this system of difference equations. Does anyone see how to proceed? It bugs me that the resulting B&A process is so similar to a Moran Process, but the solution does not match.
EDIT: After much persuasion, wolframAlpha gave me a solution. However, it is in terms of regularised hypergeometric functions, which is not a nice result:
$$\mathbb E[T\,|\,X_0=\mathbf 0]=\frac{1}{2^{n+1}}\frac{e^{i\pi(n+1)}\Gamma(n+1)}{\ _2\tilde F_1(1,1;1-n;-1)+\ _2\tilde F_1(1,2;2-n;-1)}$$
Intuitively, I would expect some binomial coefficients here, but i do not see how to simplify it.
EDIT: The answer from Florian Lehner below seems to indicate that $$\mathbb E[T\,|\,X_0=\mathbf 0]=\frac{1}{2}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac {1}{\pi_k\,p^+_k},$$ where $\pi=(\pi_0,\pi_1,\ldots,\pi_n)$ is the stationary distribution of the lumped B&D-process. The stationary distribution is binomial, i.e. $$\pi_k=\binom{n}{k}2^{-n}.$$
However, guessing a solution of the recurrence above is not straight forward, but maybe it is some version of siefting formula...?