Below text quoted from Jiff Matousek book:
Affine dependence of $a_1 ,\dots, a_n$ is equivalent to linear dependence of the $n-1$ vectors $a_1 - a_n, a_2 - a_n, \dots, a_{n-1}-a_n$ . Therefore, the maximum possible number of affinely independent points in $\mathbb{R^d}$ is $d+1$.
My question is why affinely independent points in $\mathbb{R^d}$ is $d+1$?
( We know that for linear dependence there are at least $d+1$ such points. The dimension of the space is $d$, so the maximum linearly independent set can have only $d$ elements. Hence, one of them is linearly dependent on the others.)
If use the logic of linear dependence, there should be $d-1$ points are independent in affine subspace in $\mathbb{R^d}$ because $d$(which $n$ points) points are dependent.