I feel like I have a very simple proof that there can't exist any real measurable cardinals. I know the proof is wrong somewhere but I cannot find the mistake.
By a result from Ulam all real measureable cardinals must be weakly inaccessible. This then means that the cardinal sucessor of any measurable carindal is not real measurable (it is not a limit cardinal). But for $\alpha$ not a real measuable cardinal, all $\beta<\alpha$ must also not be real measurable (assume assume there is a measure $\mu$ on $2^\beta$ that satsisfies the real measurable property, then the measure $\nu(A) = \mu(A\cap \beta)$ on $2^\alpha$ would also satisfies the real measurable property [this is essential given in theorem 2, page 317 of Kuratowski and Mostowski's set theory book]). Does this not imply that if $\alpha$ is real measurable, then $\alpha+1$ is also not real measurable and so $\alpha$ cannot be real measurable?