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The Exponential integral is defined by

$$ \mathrm{Ei}(x) = \int_{-\infty}^x \frac{e^t}{t} \mathrm dt, $$ and has the following expansion

$$ \mathrm{Ei}(x) = \log x + \gamma + \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{x^k}{k \cdot k!}. $$ Someone recently made a contribution on the french Wikipedia page for it and he claimed the following expansion for its compositional inverse function: $$ \forall |x| < \frac{\mu}{\log \mu},\quad \mathrm{Ei}^{-1}(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!} \frac{P_n(\log\mu)}{\mu^n}, $$ with $\mu$ being the Soldner constant ($\log\mu$ being the positive zero of $\mathrm{Ei}$) and $(P_n)$ is defined by

$$ P_0(x) = x, \quad P_{n+1}(x) = x(P_n'(x) - nP_n(x)). $$

So $P_0(x) = P_1(x) = x, P_2(x) = x - x^2, P_3(x) = 2x^3 - 4x^2 + x, \ldots$

This is quite an incredible result, but his source did not mention any of this and I couldn't find the result anywhere on the web. I told him about it and he responded that he had probably found it somewhere on a web page dedicated to maths, but couldn't anymore, so he undid his contribution.

I think this is quite a shame considering how incredible the formula looks, so I wanted to prove it to add it back. My first instinct was to use Lagrange's inversion formula at the point $\log\mu$:

$$ \mathrm{Ei}^{-1}(x) = \log\mu + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!} \left.\left(\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt}\right)^{n-1} \left(\frac{t-\log\mu}{\mathrm{Ei}(t)}\right)^n\right|_{t=\log\mu}. $$

With this expression, we immediatly see that the formula holds for the constant term, and we can compute the terms one by one with L'Hôpital's rule. However proving the general formula and making the polynomial sequence appear seems to be much more difficult.

The radius of convergence can easily be computed as for $n\geq1$, $\deg P_n = n$.

Evaluating the polynomial sequence at $1$ and $-1$ yields the sequences A089963 and A029768, which further supports the claim.


EDIT:

Numerical evidence shows that the formula given by Tyma Gaidash for $P_n$ is true:

$$ P_n(x) = \left.\left(\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt}\right)^{n-1} \left(\frac{te^x}{\mathrm{Ei}(t+x) - \mathrm{Ei}(x)}\right)^n\right|_{t=0}. $$ The current goal is to show that the above satisifies the recurrence relation, after which it is easy to show the rest.

Nolord
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    $P_n(x)=\frac{d^{n-1}}{dt^{n-1}}\left(\frac{te^x}{\text{Ei}(t+x)-\text{Ei}(x)}\right)^n\bigg|{t=0}$. Unfortunately plugging it in the recurrence relation and equating everything in the $\frac{d^{n-1}}{dt^{n-1}}(\dots)\big|{t=0}$ does not work. However, $P_n(x)$ can be used to expand the function around other points besides $x=\ln(\mu)$. Also, what source did he give? – Тyma Gaidash Apr 19 '24 at 19:11
  • Nice! The formula does seem to work, but the recurrence is indeed hard to prove. How did you find it? He didn't give any source on the expansion of $\mathrm{Ei}^{-1}$. – Nolord Apr 20 '24 at 08:06
  • The proof of Tyma Gaidash's formula: $$ P_n(\log \mu) = \mu^n \left[ \frac{d^{n-1}}{dt^{n-1}} \left( \frac{t - \log \mu}{{\rm Ei}(t)} \right)^n \right]{t = \log \mu} = \left[ \frac{d^{n-1}}{dt^{n-1}} \left( \mu \frac{t - \log \mu}{{\rm Ei}(t) - {\rm Ei}(\log \mu)} \right)^n \right]{t = \log \mu} \ = \left[ \frac{d^{n-1}}{dt^{n-1}} \left( \frac{(t - \log \mu) e^{\log \mu}}{{\rm Ei}(t) - {\rm Ei}(\log \mu)} \right)^n \right]{t=\log \mu} = \left[ \frac{d^{n-1}}{dt^{n-1}} \left( \frac{t e^{\log\mu}}{{\rm Ei}(t+\log\mu)- {\rm Ei}(\log\mu)} \right)^n \right]{t=0}. $$ Take $\log \mu = x$. – Gary Apr 23 '24 at 04:14
  • Yes I figured that's how he found it, but that does not constitute a proof. – Nolord Apr 23 '24 at 14:40
  • The same recurrence relation seems to be for the inverse logarithmic integral too. – Тyma Gaidash May 14 '24 at 01:05

1 Answers1

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This result can be obtained directly from a Maclaurin expansion of the function. By denoting \begin{equation} y=\mathrm{Ei}^{-1}(x) \end{equation} the integral representation of $\mathrm{Ei}(y)$ gives \begin{align} \frac{dy}{dx}&=\left(\frac{dx}{dy}\right)^{-1}\\ &=\left( \frac{d\mathrm{Ei}(y)}{dy} \right)^{-1}\\ &=ye^{-y} \end{align} Now, \begin{align} \frac{d^2y}{dx^2}&=\frac{d}{dx}\left( \frac{dy}{dx} \right)\\ &=\frac{dy}{dx}.\frac{d}{dy}\left( \frac{dy}{dx} \right)\\ &=ye^{-y}.\frac{d}{dy}\left(ye^{-y}\right)\\ &=(y-y^2)e^{-2y} \end{align} Assuming \begin{equation} \frac{d^ny}{dx^n}=P_n(y)e^{-ny} \end{equation} we have \begin{align} \frac{d^{n+1}y}{dx^{n+1}}&=\frac{dy}{dx}.\frac{d}{dy}\left( \frac{d^ny}{dx^n} \right)\\ &=ye^{-y}\left[P'_n(y)e^{-ny}-nP_n(y)e^{-ny}\right]\\ &=ye^{-(n+1)y}\left( P'_n(y)-nP_n(y)\right) \end{align} and thus this term has the same form as $\frac{d^ny}{dx^n}$ with \begin{equation} P_{n+1}(y)=y\left[ P'_n(y)-nP_n(y)\right] \end{equation}

For $x=0$, we have $y=\log\mu$, and then \begin{align} \left.\frac{d^ny}{dx^n}\right|_{x=0}&=\left.\frac{d^ny}{dx^n}\right|_{y=\log\mu}\\ &=\mu^{-n}P_n(\log\mu) \end{align} Maclaurin expansion writes \begin{equation} \mathrm{Ei}^{-1}(x)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n!}\mu^{-n}P_n(\log\mu) \end{equation} with the given recurrence relation and $P_0(y)=y$, as expected.

Paul Enta
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    Of course! No need for complicated Lagrange stuff, just plain and simple Maclaurin expansion. – Nolord Apr 24 '24 at 05:51
  • How would you find the interval of convergence? – Тyma Gaidash Apr 24 '24 at 12:49
  • @TymaGaidash it is a difficult question for me... – Paul Enta Apr 24 '24 at 21:26
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    You use the formula $R= \lim_{n\to\infty} |\frac{c_n}{c_{n+1}}|$, where $c_n$ the coefficient. The dominant coefficient of $P_n$ is $(-1)^{n-1} (n-1)!$ for $n>0$, so it easily simplifies into the radius I mentioned. – Nolord Apr 25 '24 at 07:48