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I finally found a single integral solving the natural generalisation of the problem discussed here:

For $n\ge1$ pick $n+2$ points uniformly at random on the unit circle. What is the probability $P_n(x)$ of the convex hull of the points containing $X=(x,0)$ where $0\le x\le1$?

If the convex hull does not contain $X$ exactly one of the following cases must hold:

  • All $n+2$ points are on the same side of the $x$-axis ($OX$). This happens with probability $2^{-(n+1)}$.
  • There is a point $V$ with Weierstrass parameter $v>0$ and another point $T$ with parameter $t<k/v$ where $k=\frac{x-1}{x+1}$, and none of the remaining points' parameters are between $t$ and $v$. All points thus lie "left" of the segment $TV$ which lies "left" of $X$. The probability of a point falling in the arc $TV$ is $\frac{\arctan v-\arctan t}\pi$, while $t,v$ are Cauchy-distributed and can be selected from the pool of points in $(n+2)(n+1)$ ways. This case's contribution to the overall probability is thus $$\frac{(n+2)(n+1)}{\pi^2}\int_0^\infty\int_{-\infty}^{k/v}\frac1{1+v^2}\frac1{1+t^2}\left(1-\frac{\arctan v-\arctan t}\pi\right)^n\,dt\,dv$$
  • There is a point $V$ with Weierstrass parameter $v>0$ and another point $T$ with parameter $k/v<t<0$ and all of the remaining points' parameters are between $t$ and $v$, i.e. they are "right" of $TV$ which in turn is "right" of $X$. By similar reasoning to the previous case the present case's contribution is $$\frac{(n+2)(n+1)}{\pi^2}\int_0^\infty\int_{k/v}^0\frac1{1+v^2}\frac1{1+t^2}\left(\frac{\arctan v-\arctan t}\pi\right)^n\,dt\,dv$$

Putting everything together we have $$P_n(x)=1-2^{-(n+1)}-\frac{(n+2)(n+1)}{\pi^2}\left(\int_0^\infty\int_{-\infty}^{k/v}\frac1{1+v^2}\frac1{1+t^2}\left(1-\frac{\arctan v-\arctan t}\pi\right)^n\,dt\,dv + \int_0^\infty\int_{k/v}^0\frac1{1+v^2}\frac1{1+t^2}\left(\frac{\arctan v-\arctan t}\pi\right)^n\,dt\,dv\right)$$ This can be turned into a single integral by expanding and solving the $t$ integral. Define the polynomial $$Q(V,K)=\sum_{i=0}^n\sum_{j=0}^i\binom ni\binom ij\frac{(-V)^{i-j}}{\pi^i}\frac{K^{j+1}-(-\pi/2)^{j+1}}{j+1}+\sum_{i=0}^n\binom ni\frac{V^{n-i}}{\pi^n}\frac{(-K)^{i+1}}{i+1}$$ Then $$P_n(x)=1-2^{-(n+1)}-\frac{(n+2)(n+1)}{\pi^2}\int_0^\infty\frac{Q(\arctan v,\arctan k/v)}{1+v^2}\,dv$$


I already worked out that $$P_1(x)=\frac14-\frac3{2\pi^2}\operatorname{Li}_2(x^2)$$ The new surprising thing, though, is that numerical calculations strongly suggest $$\boxed{P_2(x)=2P_1(x)}$$ i.e. it is exactly twice as likely that four random points on the unit circle will enclose $X$ than will three random points, no matter where $X$ is. This relation does not extend to $P_3(x)$ and beyond.

How can the boxed relation be proved?

Parcly Taxel
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1 Answers1

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Let $S_1$ be the unit circle with its normed Lebesgue measure invariated by rotations, so that $\int_{S^1} 1=1$. Integrals will be always written w.r.t. some normed measure below. The measure is omitted, as it is sometimes the case in measure theory, when $\int f$ is seen as a functional in $f$ w.r.t. to some fixed measure $\mu$, it stays then explicitly for $\int f\; d\mu$.

Let $C(n)=C(n,S^1)$ the space of configurations of $n$ points in $S^1$. The symmetric group $S(n)$ acts on $C(n)$ by permutation of the components. The quotient space $C(n)/S(n)$ obtained by identifying points in the same orbit can be seen as the subspace of $C(n)$ with points $(P_1,P_2,\dots,P_n)$ in cyclic order, further taken modulo cyclic permutations. Consider now the space $C_0(n)$ of configurations of $n$ points in $S^1$ which are in cyclic order. (Call such a configuration cyclic.) It is a subspace of $C(n)$, but when the measure is also part of the game, take it normed to total mass one (probability mass).

A function $f$ on $C(n)$ which is $S(n)$-invariant can be seen then, and its expectation can be measured "as it is" in any of the spaces $C(n)$, $C(n)/S(n)$, $C_0(n)$.


We will be concerned only with $C(3)$, and $C(4)$, the spaces of configurations of three, respectively four points in $S^1$, their quotients w.r.t. the permutation groups $S(3)$, $S(4)$, and the cousins $C_0(3)$, $C_0(4)$ with a restriction to cyclic configurations.


The wanted relations between the two probabilities can be traced back to the following geometric property:

Lemma: Let $X$ be a point in the unit disk. Let $A,B,C,D$ be four points in this cyclic order on $S^1$, the boundary of the unit disk.

  • If $X$ is not in the convex hull $(ABCD)$ of the points $A,B,C,D$, then $X$ is in exactly two among the four solid, convex hull triangles $$ (ABC)\ ,\ (BCD)\ ,\ (CDA)\ ,\ (DAB)\ . $$ (Up to conventions regarding boundaries, and the definition of "in" that includes or excludes them. This amounts to ignoring a set of configurations $(A,B,C,D)\in C_0(4)$ with zero probability.)
  • If $X$ is not in the convex hull $(ABCD)$ of the points $A,B,C,D$, then it is also in none of the triangles. In particular, $$ 2\cdot 1_{X\in(ABCD)} = 1_{X\in(ABC)} + 1_{X\in(BCD)} + 1_{X\in(CDA)} + 1_{X\in(DAB)} \ . $$ Above, $1_E$ is the characteristic function of an event $E$, and the event $X\in (ABCD)$ for instance is the set of configurations in $C_0(4)$ containing $X$ in their convex hull.

This is transparent from the picture:

MSE 4897196


We can now conclude using the geometric symmetry: $$ \begin{aligned} 2P_2(X) &=2\int_{C(4)}1_{X\in(ABCD)}\\ &=2\int_{C_0(4)}1_{X\in(ABCD)}\\ &=\int_{C_0(4)}( 1_{X\in(ABC)} + 1_{X\in(BCD)} + 1_{X\in(CDA)} + 1_{X\in(DAB)} )\\ &=4\int_{C_0(4)}1_{X\in(ABC)}\\ &=4\int_{C_0(3)}1_{X\in(ABC)}\\ &=4\int_{C(3)}1_{X\in(ABC)}\\ &=4P_1(X)\ . \end{aligned} $$ When passing from $C_0(4)$ to $C_0(3)$ we use the transport formula which connects the measure $\mu$ on $C_0(4)$ with the transported measure $\mu\circ\pi^{-1}$ on $C_0(3)$, where $\pi$ is the natural projection $(A,B,C,D)\to (A,B,C)$, and for an event $E$ in $C_0(3)$ its probability is the same one as for the preimage $\pi^{-1}(E)$ when taking the probability from $C_0(4)$.


When five points are taken, the same argument fails. For instance, if we consider triangles of the shape $(A_kA_{k+1}A_{k+2})$ then two cyclicly consecutive such triangles cover only the marked regions. For the other regions we need "an other kind of triangles", in any case, the above scheme breaks. mse argument fails for a pentagon

dan_fulea
  • 37,952
  • Note: The action of the symmetry groups and considering it is not so important for the proof, in fact we can simply forget about it, but it is important to have it and see where the pattern breaks in configurations with more points. – dan_fulea Apr 12 '24 at 00:14