I want to find a counterexample for the following "Theorem": Let $V \neq 0$ be a finite dimensional $K$ - vector space and $L \subset \mathfrak{gl}(V)$ a linear subspace. If all $x \in L$ are nilpotent as maps $V \rightarrow V$ then there is a $v \in V, v \neq 0$ such that $\forall x \in L: x(v) = 0$.
When $L$ is a Lie subalgebra of $\mathfrak{gl}(V)$ this statement is supposedly true, according to my lecture notes, but not true if it's just a linear subspace of $\mathfrak{gl}(V)$. I couldn't come up with a counterexample though, so that's why I am asking for help.
Certainly counterexamples can't be abelian, as then they'd automatically be Lie subalgebras. So they also, in particular, can not be one dimensional subspaces.
I tried to construct something with two nilpotent matrices where their anti-commutator vanishes so that any power of their linear combinations consists of only powers of themselves again, but so far to no avail. There was always a vector in V mapped to 0 by all elements of $L$
Thank you in advance :)