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If $X$ is a random variable with distribution function $F,$ then $\mathbb{E}[(F[X])^{-1/2}]$ can be computed by integration by parts, if $X$ has a continuous density $f$. What happens in the general case? Can we always compute it (or bound it)?

Amir
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STrick
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  • By "in the general case" do you mean for a general power or when $X$ does not necessarily have a continuous density ? – Beleth Feb 02 '24 at 12:06
  • What's the motivation for the question, by the way? (Just curiosity, or did it arise naturally somewhere?) – Clement C. Feb 02 '24 at 12:26
  • @Beleth I mean the case when $X$ doesn't necessarily have a continuous density. – STrick Feb 02 '24 at 12:50
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    @ClementC. I saw the question of finding $\mathbb{E}[F(X)]$ here in mathstack, and I tried to do the same for negative powers, but failed. The exponent $-1/2$ is to make the computations easy. I believe, that the same holds for every negative exponent bigger than $-1$. – STrick Feb 02 '24 at 12:53
  • I just completed my answer for any monotone functions. I suggested replacing "a power of" with "a monotone function of" to make the question more visible. – Amir Feb 04 '24 at 13:43

2 Answers2

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From here, we know that when $F(x)$ is the continuouse CDF of $X$, $$F(X)\sim U(0,1).$$

Hence, you can compute the expectation of any measurable function $g$ of $F(X)$ (if it is finite) as follows:

$$\mathbb E \left [g(F(X)) \right ]=\int_{0}^1 g(x)\text{d}x.$$

For $$g(x)=x^{-a}$$ with $a \ge 1$, it is infinite. For $0<a<1$, it becomes

$$\frac{1}{1-a}.$$


Responding to @Beleth, if $F(x)$ is not continuouse, unfortunatly the above dose not hold. The most similar result holds for the following transform: $G:\mathbb{R}\times[0,1]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ of $X$:

$$G(x,v)=F(x-)+v(F(x)-F(x-)).$$

For $V\sim U(0,1),$ which is independent of $X$, we have

$$G(X,V)\sim U(0,1),$$

which reduces to $F(X)\sim U(0,1) $ for continuous CDF $F$.

Update:

From the above one can see that:

$$\color{blue}{F(X)=G(X,V)+(1-V)(F(X)-F(X^-)) \ge_{1st} G(X,V) \sim U(0,1)},$$

where $\ge_{1st}$ denotes the first order stochastic dominance. Thus, for an increasing function $g$ we have:

$$ \fbox{$\int_{0}^1 g(x)\text{d}x \le \mathbb E \left [g(F(X)) \right ] \le g(1)$},$$

and for a decreasing function $g$:

$$\fbox { $g(1) \le \mathbb E \left [g(F(X)) \right ] \le \int_{0}^1 g(x)\text{d}x. $ } $$

The upper bound in the first and the lower bound in the second are attained when $F(x)$ is a discrete CDF with a single jump, and the lower bound in the first and the upper bound in the second are attained when $F(x)$ is a continuous CDF, as shown earlier above.

In particular, for $g(x)=x^{-a}$ with $0<a<1$, we have

$$1 \le \mathbb E \left [g(F(X)) \right ] \le \frac{1}{1-a}.$$

Amir
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  • This is finite for $a \in [0, 1)$. This is why OP found a finite value for $a = 1/2$ by integration by parts. – Beleth Feb 02 '24 at 19:22
  • @Beleth thank you! Just considered two cases. – Amir Feb 02 '24 at 19:32
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    Nice ! I wonder how your approach generalizes to any CDF. Because right now it needs the CDF to be continuous (which is already more general than OP's version). Since the CDF has at most a countable amount of discontinuity points, I wonder if there is a way to generalize. – Beleth Feb 02 '24 at 19:40
  • @Beleth you may check the update. – Amir Feb 02 '24 at 20:37
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Let $Y = \frac{1}{\sqrt{F(X)}}$. Since $Y$ is non-negative, we have $$ \mathbb{E}[Y] = \int_{0}^\infty \mathbb{P}\{ Y \geq x \} dx = \int_0^1 1\cdot dx + \int_{1}^\infty \mathbb{P}\{ Y \geq x \} dx = 1+ \int_{1}^\infty \mathbb{P}\{ Y \geq x \} dx \tag{1} $$ the second-to-last equality since $Y \geq 1$ almost surely. Now, this gives us: $$\begin{align*} \mathbb{E}[Y] &= 1+ \int_{1}^\infty \mathbb{P}\left\{ \frac{1}{\sqrt{F(X)}} \geq x \right\} dx\\ &= 1+\int_{1}^\infty \mathbb{P}\left\{ F(X) \leq \frac{1}{x^2} \right\} dx \end{align*}$$ Now, if $F$ was a continuous CDF, then as in Amir's answer we could say that $F(X)$ is uniform on $[0,1]$, and then $\mathbb{P}\left\{ F(X) \leq {1}/{x^2} \right\} = 1/x^2$; so that the integral would be 1, and the overall expression $1+1=2$.

This is however not the case in general. Yet, we do have the inequality $$ \mathbb{P}\left\{ F(X) \leq {1}/{x^2} \right\} \leq 1/x^2 $$ (See this question), so that $$\begin{align*} \mathbb{E}[Y] &\leq 1+\int_{1}^\infty \frac{dx}{x^2} =2. \end{align*}$$

Conclusion: $$ \boxed{1 \leq \mathbb{E} \frac{1}{\sqrt{F(X)}} \leq 2} $$ for every r.v. $X$.

Moreover, this is tight: the lower bound is achieved for a point mass, and the upper bound for any r.v. with strictly increasing continuous cdf.

Clement C.
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    Hello, I think that there is a problem where you use the "F is right-continuous" argument, and the equality is not true (by considering a CDF that is flat around $X$ for instance). As a consequence, the lower-bound is probably false as well. For instance, a counterexample would be the RV that is a.s. equal to $0$ : it satisfies $E(1/\sqrt{F(X)}) = P(0) \times 1/\sqrt{F(0)} = 1 \times 1/\sqrt{1} = 1$. – Beleth Feb 02 '24 at 12:51
  • I think there has to be a distinction between large and strict inequalities. – Beleth Feb 02 '24 at 12:55
  • @Beleth I expect that it is always bounded above by 2. – STrick Feb 02 '24 at 12:55
  • @beleth you're right, I think this would require left-continuity here. Will delete my answer. – Clement C. Feb 02 '24 at 12:56
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    @STrick updated. – Clement C. Feb 03 '24 at 13:05