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Here is an analysis problem I'm stuck on:

Let $f\in C^0([0,1])$ with $f(0)=0$ and $f$ increasing and convex. Define: $$ f_n(x) = n\big[f(x)-f(x-\tfrac{1}{n})\big] $$ Show:

  1. $f(1-\tfrac{1}{n})\le\int_0^1f_n(x)\ dx\le f(1)$
  2. There is a $g$ with $f_n(x)\rightarrow g(x)$ almost everywhere
  3. $\int_0^1 g(x)\ dx = f(1)$

I've been able to do part 1, and I believe I can do part 2. The idea is that convexity implies $f_n(x)\ge f_m(x)$ when $n\ge m$ [I call this pointwise monotonicity below], and I use that to show $\{f_n\}$ is a Cauchy sequence in $L^1([0,1])$. There is thus a $g\in L^1([0,1])$ with $f_n\rightarrow g$ almost everywhere, and the pointwise monotonicity implies this is pointwise convergence too.

Part 3 is straightforward, except for one wrinkle: I can't seem to show $g$ is Riemann integrable. It seems like the following should be generally true, but I cannot prove it:

If $\{f_n\}$ is a pointwise monotonic sequence of continuous functions, converging to $g\in L^1([0,1])$, then $g$ is continuous almost everywhere.

Is this true? Or do I need to use more about this particular sequence of my original problem?

J. W. Tanner
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    Hint: show $g$ is monotonically increasing. – Mark Saving Sep 11 '23 at 22:23
  • @MarkSaving: thank you for the hint! One question: does this hint apply to all the sequences I mentioned in the second quote block, or only the case from the original problem (where $f$ is convex)? – Hempelicious Sep 11 '23 at 22:38
  • After thinking about it more, the generic sequences I mentioned do not always lead to an increasing $g$ (just take $f_n=-x-\tfrac{1}{n}$, which converges to $g=-x$). So I guess the hint is about the case of the original problem (where we can leverage convexity). I think that makes a lot of sense: $g$ should behave like the derivative of $f$, and for a convex function that should be increasing. Now I just need to prove it :) – Hempelicious Sep 12 '23 at 16:29
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    Yes, the hint was about the original problem. $g$ is a “weak derivative” of $f$ (not actually the derivative, but it integrates as if it were the derivative in certain circumstances). The notion of weak derivative is quite useful in the study of partial differential equations. – Mark Saving Sep 12 '23 at 19:12

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Thanks to the hints of @MarkSaving, I have an answer!

The key is that for $x<y$, for large enough $N$, we have \begin{equation*} x-\tfrac{1}{N} < x < y-\tfrac{1}{N} < y \end{equation*}

And convexity of $f$ then implies that $f_N(x)\le f_N(y)$. Since $g$ is the limit of the $f_N$, this means $g(x)\le g(y)$. So $g$ is monotonically increasing, and thus is discontinuous on a set of measure zero.

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    (+1), but note that a monotone function is integrable for elementary reasons (so we needn't invoke Riemann's criterion about the discontinuity set): If we use equal-length partitions, we can make the upper sum minus the lower sum as small as we like. – Andrew D. Hwang Sep 15 '23 at 16:03