Find the probability that all $k$ bins are filled, if each of $n≥k$ balls are randomly placed into one of the $k$ slots.
I have solved the above question using PIE where I take the complement ($1$ - $P($bin_1 is empty or bin_2 is empty ... or bin_k is empty$)$) to get $1$ - $\sum_{i=1}^{k}$$\binom{k}{i}$$(-1)^{i+1}$$(\frac{k-i}{k})^{n}$.
But, my initial intuition was to look at the event where $n=k$, in which case the answer to the question is $\frac{k!}{k^{n}}$. But, I am not able to figure out how to use this approach to solve for the scenario where $n>k$. My thought process was to start off the same way as I did for $n=k$, and then each remaining ball can go in any of the $n$ bins, which means there is a $100%$ chance of the remaining balls being matched to the bins. However, I know I am not accounting for some of the counting and arrangements of which balls get placed in which bins for the first time. May someone provide insight on how to solve this question using casework without PIE as I was trying here, as well as any advice on how to know what method to use for these types of questions? I usually am unsure how to approach it and only switch ways if I notice something is taking too long as I am new to PIE. Thanks.