Let $A, B$ be symmetric positive definite matrices. Suppose that $\frac{1}{2}B^{1/2} \preceq A \preceq B^{1/2}$. Can we prove $AB^{-1}A\preceq \text{constant}\cdot I\,\,$?
If we could have $A^2 \preceq B$ from $A \preceq B^{1/2}$, then we have $B^{-1}\preceq (A^2)^{-1} = A^{-2},$ and can show $AB^{-1}A\preceq A(A^{-2})A = I$.
Unfortunately, by Is $A^2-B^2$ positive definite too when $A-B,B$ is positive definite?, $A \preceq B^{1/2}$ does not imply $A^2 \preceq B$.
I am thinking that the other inequality $ A \succeq \frac{1}{2}B^{1/2}$ might help. Also, I can allow the "constant" to be some larger constant than $1$. However, it is still unclear how to show the desired inequality.