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Let $T:V \to W$ be a one-to-one linear map ($V,W$ are finite vector spaces over a field $\Bbb F$), prove there exists a linear map $S: W \to V$ such that $S∘T: V \to V$ is the identity map of $V$.

I know $T$ is one-to-one so $\dim V≤\dim W$, meaning that $S$ can be an onto linear map since the dimension of the domain is bigger than or equal to the dimension of the range. I tried defining $S$ to be a linear map such that $S(T(v))=v$. The problem is that $T$ is not necessarily onto so I didn't cover all possible values for the domain of $S$ with the definition of $S$ that I wrote above. Now I'm stuck.

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    Say you define $S(T(v)) = v$ as you said, you are left with some vectors $w$ and you need to decide the value of $S(w)$, what would make most sense? Does it actually work or do you need to try something else? – Yuumita Feb 22 '23 at 16:31
  • You mean $S(w)$? I guess what would make the most sense is defining $S(w)=0$ – Kantig Shoter Feb 22 '23 at 16:34
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    your're right, I'm editing the post. And yes $0$ is the most logical value. – Yuumita Feb 22 '23 at 16:35

2 Answers2

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Consider the image $W'=T(V)$ of $T$, which is a vector space of dimension $\dim W'=\dim V\le \dim W$ inside $W$. Take a complement $W''$ of $W'$ in $W$. This is done for instance by the choice of a basis $B'$ of $W'$, which becomes a linearly independent system for $W$, and extend it now (which also involves a choice process/axiom) by adding a system $B''$ to obtain a basis $B=B'\cup B''$ of $W$. Take now $W''$ to be the vector space generated inside $W$ by $B''$.

Define $S$ to be the inverse of $T$ (restricted as a map $V\to W'$) on $W'$, and to be zero (or whatever) on $W''$. This determines $S$ on $W$. It is easily checked by definition that $S(T(v))=v$.

dan_fulea
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The result holds in arbitrary vector spaces (even infinite dimension), if we assume the Axiom of Choice for the infinite dimensional case. It will appear in the form of "every linearly independent subset can be extended to a basis".

The key is the following theorem:

Theorem. Let $T\colon V\to W$ be a linear transformation. Then $T$ is one-to-one if and only if for every linearly independent indexed set $\{v_i\}_{i\in I}\subseteq V$, the set $\{T(v_i)\}_{i\in I}$ is linearly independent in $W$.

(I write them as indexed sets to include the case where the set has the same vector multiple times, in which case it is considered to be linearly dependent).

Proof. Assume $T$ is one-to-one, and let $\{v_i\}_{i\in I}$ be linearly independent. Let $i_1,\ldots,i_n$ be distinct indices and let $\alpha_1,\ldots,\alpha_n$ be scalars such that $$\mathbf{0} = \alpha_1T(v_{i_1}) + \cdots + \alpha_nT(v_{i_n}).$$ Then $$\begin{align*} \mathbf{0} &= \alpha_1T(v_{i_1}) + \cdots + \alpha_nT(v_{i_n})\\ &= T(\alpha_1v_{i_1}+\cdots+\alpha_nv_{i_n}). \end{align*}$$ Since $T$ is one-to-one, it follows that $\alpha_1v_{i_1}+\cdots+\alpha_nv_{i_n} = \mathbf{0}$. Since $\{v_i\}_{i\in I}$ is linearly independent, we conclude that $\alpha_1=\cdots=\alpha_n=0$. This proves that $\{T(v_i)\}_{i\in I}$ is linearly independent.

Conversely, assume that whenever $\{v_i\}_{i\in I}$ is linearly independent, then $\{T(v_i)\}_{i\in I}$ is linearly independent. We prove that $\ker(T)=\{\mathbf{0}\}$. Indeed, if $v\in\ker(T)$, then $\{T(v)\} = \{\mathbf{0}\}$ is linearly dependent, so it follows that $\{v\}$ is linearly dependent. A one vector set is linearly dependent if and only if $v=\mathbf{0}$, so we conclude that $ker(T)=\mathbf{0}$, as desired. $\Box$

So let $V$ and $W$ be arbitrary vector spaces, let $T\colon V\to W$ be a one-to-one linear transformation.

Let $\beta=\{v_i\}_{i\in I}$ be a basis for $V$. Since $\beta$ is linearly independent and $T$ is one-to-one, we know that $T(\beta)=\{T(v_i)\}_{i\in I}$ is a linearly independent subset of $W$. Extend $T(\beta)$ to a basis $\gamma$ for $W$, $$\gamma = \{T(v_i)\}_{i\in I}\cup\{w_j\}_{j\in J}.$$ Now define $S\colon W\to V$ by definining it on $\gamma$ and extending linearly. We let $S(T(v_i)) = v_i$ for all $i\in I$, $S(w_j) = \mathbf{0}$ for all $j\in J$.

Then $S\circ T$ and the identity linear transformation $V\to V$ agree on $\beta$, and so they are equal. That is, $S\circ T = \mathrm{I}_V$.

We might note the converse: if $T\colon V\to W$ is a linear transformation, and there exists a linear transformation $S\colon W\to V$ such that $S\circ T=\mathrm{I}_V$, then $T$ is one-to-one.

This is analogous to the set theory result that says that a function $f\colon X\to Y$ with $X\neq\varnothing$ is one-to-one if and only if there exists $g\colon Y\to X$ such that $g\circ f = \mathrm{id}_X$. If you want to get categorical, it is a consequence of the fact that in the category of vector spaces over $k$, every object is free.

Arturo Magidin
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