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Definition

A subbase for a topology $\cal T$ on a set $X$ is a subcollection $\cal S$ of $\cal T$ such that the collection $$ \mathcal I:=\Big\{Y\in\mathcal P(X):Y=\bigcap\mathcal S'\,\text{with $\mathcal S'\subseteq\mathcal S$ finite}\Big\} $$ is a base for $\cal T$.

So I am trying to understand if a subbase is always an open cover when $X$ is not empty. So I observe that if $X$ is not empty then for any $x\in X$ there exists $\cal S'\subseteq S$ with $n\in\omega$ such that $$ x\in\bigcap \cal S' $$ but (clik here for details) we know that $\bigcap\emptyset$ is not defined in ZF so that actually there exists $S_1,\dots, S_n\in\cal S$ not empty with $n\in\omega$ such that $$ x\in S_1\cap\dots\cap S_n\subseteq\bigcup\cal S $$ which proves that $\cal S$ cover $X$.

Now here Mirko and even here Henno state on the contrary that a subbase is not an open cover giving as counterexample the empty collection with respect the trivial topology into a not empty set $X$: however if $\emptyset$ was a subbase for $\{\emptyset,X\}$ then there must exist $x\in X$ such that $x$ lies in $\bigcap\cal F$ for any $\cal F\subseteq\emptyset$ but in this case $\cal F$ must be empty and $\bigcap\emptyset$ is not defined so that I argue that a subbase is not a cover only if we informally put $$ X:=\bigcap\emptyset $$ for any not empty set $X$, right?

So I ask to explain well if a subbase is an open cover with respect the above definition and then I ask if a cover is a subbase for any topology. So could someone help me, please?

  • @OliverDíaz Okay, thanks for the check: it seemed to me that Mirko's answer was referring to the same my definition because in the second part of the answer he says that if the "universe" set is not a subbase element then the subbase could be not a cover as after all he showed finally with a counterexample. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 10:25
  • At issue is the possibility of having and empty intersection (which is the whole space $X$), then of course one has to add $X$ to the subbase, or specify in your definition of basis that intersections are finite and not empty. – Mittens Dec 30 '22 at 10:27
  • @OliverDíaz Okay, so substantially (for confirmation) a subbase could be not a cover putting informally that $$⋂∅:=X$$ right? – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 10:40
  • If only finite intersections (no additional adjectives) appears in your definition of sub basis, then indeed a suubbase may fail to be an open cover. One observation, there is nothing informal about $\bigcap\emptyset=X$, in fact this follows from the definition of intersection. – Mittens Dec 30 '22 at 11:01
  • @OliverDíaz Sorry, I am a bit confused now: I saw you deleted your first comment so that by your last does I have to argue that with respect my definition a subbase could be not cover $X$? Could you explain, please? Forgive my confusion. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 11:08
  • I removed my precious comment because I missed the fact that finite intersection also include and empty intersection. Thus, unless the sub basis $\mathcal{S}$ includes the whole space, $\mathcal{S}$ may fail to be an open cover. For example, $X={1,2}$; $S={{1}}$ is a subbasis for the topology $\tau={\emptyset,{1},X}$ but $S$ is not an open cover of $X$. On the other hand, $S'={{1},X}$ is also subbasis for $\tau$ and it al also an open cover of $X$. – Mittens Dec 30 '22 at 11:31
  • @OliverDíaz So you say that $S$ is a subbase because $$2\in\bigcap\emptyset$$ right? – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 11:33
  • Yes, because $\bigcap\emptyset=X$. – Mittens Dec 30 '22 at 11:35
  • @OliverDíaz Oaky, the last equality is not a problem but I have to put it because I know that $\bigcap\emptyset$ is not defined with respect ZF as here Hartkp explain: moreover, at the page $6$ of this pretty text (in Spanish sorry) is explicitly observed that it is necessary to agree upon on the meaning of $\bigcap\emptyset$. So the question become: if $\bigcap\emptyset$ is not defined with respect ZF then does a subbase must be a cover? – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 11:42
  • that is not right. Under ZF (see the classification axion scheme $\bigcap\emptyset=X$ (here $\bigcap\mathcal{A}={x\in X: \forall A, A\in\mathcal{A},\text{implies}, x\in A}$). If the $x\in X:...$ is substituted by $x:...$ then one gets the class of all sets (notice I said class and not set) Halmos' Naive set theory and Kelly's Appendix in General Topology are a decent source for those of us who are not set theorist but require some this rigorous. – Mittens Dec 30 '22 at 11:57
  • @OliverDíaz Well, at the page $256$ on Kelly's Topology text I see that $\bigcap\emptyset$ is just the class all sets $\cal U$, right? However $\cal U$ is not a set so that if $\cal U$ was equal to $X$ for any set $X$ then $X$ must not be a set and this is impossible, right? So what do I have to infer from this? Could you explain better, please? I am a bit confused, sorry. – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 12:08
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    Correct, bit what happened when you restrict $x$ to $x\in X$. You are overthinking all this. – Mittens Dec 30 '22 at 12:09
  • @OliverDíaz Well, I only think that one can choice (to me it seem that Hartkp says this explicitly) if it is useful to assume that the equality $$⋂∅=X$$ holds and I do not it, that's all: can this be incorrect? – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 12:26
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    Reading math books with insistence on full ZF formality is generally a losing game, even if the book is written by a consummate set theorist such as Kelley. You can certainly cut through this Gordian knot by noticing that since one is working with a particular set $X$ and its power set $\mathcal P(X)$, one may fairly insist that all intersections of subsets of $X$ --- even the empty subset of $X$ --- take place within the universe $X$, which forces the identity $\bigcap \emptyset = X$. – Lee Mosher Dec 30 '22 at 15:42
  • @LeeMosher Oh, thanks for the clarifying comment: well, in this case (hoping it is not esecrable or even -I am sure this is not- incorrect) I would prefer to not give any meaning to $\bigcap\emptyset$ as after all Thomas Jech and Karel Hrbáček do into the text Introduction to Set Theory. Thanks yet for the comment... :-) – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 15:56
  • @AntonioMariaDiMauro Hi, you may find my answer to this question useful: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4664239. It covers the same type of issue you were asking about. – PatrickR Mar 24 '23 at 21:10

2 Answers2

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There are two ways to define the notion of a subbase for a topology.

The most-used way is to say $\mathcal{S}$ is a subbase for the topology $\tau$ if the family of intersections of finite subfamilies of $\mathcal{S}$ is a base for $\tau$. The way the latter sentence is explained further generally leads to the tacit assumption that $\mathcal{S}$ covers the underlying set $X$. For example, in Engelking's General Topology the finite intersections are expressed as $S_1\cap\cdots\cap S_k$, so one is lead to believe that only non-empty finite subfamilies are being used. In Kelley's General Topology a topology is just a family of sets and the underlying set is derived from it; in chapter 1, Theorem 12, the family of finite intersections of an arbitrary family of sets, $\mathcal{S}$, is shown to be a base for a topology on $X=\bigcup\mathcal{S}$. In these contexts a subbase is indeed a cover.

Some people call $\mathcal{S}$ a subbase for $\tau$ if $\tau$ is the smallest topology that contains $\mathcal{S}$. In that case the family $\mathcal{S}=\bigl\{\{0\}\bigr\}$ is a subbase for the Sierpinski topology $\tau=\bigl\{\emptyset,\{0\},\{0,1\}\bigr\}$ on the set $X=\{0,1\}$, even though it is not a cover of $X$. In this context the corresponding base for the topology consists of all finite intersections as above, with the whole set $X$ added to it as a member, either explicitly or by stipulating $X=\bigcap\emptyset$ as explained in this answer. In this context a subbase need not be a cover.

When I teach Topology I explain both ways and warn the students to check the definition of the book that they are reading and stick to that. Note that the first definition implies the second and that the second implies the first if the family is a cover, so for covers there is no ambiguity. Thus every cover serves as a subbase for some topology.

hartkp
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  • Okay, only a little question: at the page $256$ Kelley states that $\bigcap\emptyset$ is just the class of all sets but in your linked answer it is clearly said and showed that $\bigcap\emptyset$ does not exists because $\bigcap S$ for any set $S$ is a set by ZF axiom (right?) so that I argue that Kelley use a bit different formalism for ZF axiom, right? – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 14:06
  • Kelley uses the Set Theory that is described in the back of the book and that is now called Kelly-Morse set theory. It is an extension of ZF. – hartkp Dec 30 '22 at 17:55
  • Okay, now I understand: so, the answer was upvoted and approved. Thanks very much for your assistance: you were very kind, really thanks. See you soon... I wish you a happy new year. ;-) – Antonio Maria Di Mauro Dec 30 '22 at 18:05
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A subbase doesn't have to be an open cover at all.

The point is that any subset $S\subset \mathscr P(X)$ of the power set of $X$, that's any collection of subsets of $X$, generates a topology, the smallest topology (or the intersection of all topologies) containing $S$.

So to reiterate, any set of subsets is a subbase (for the topology it generates).

A basis for a topology, otoh, has to be a cover. To get from a subbase to a base, take all finite intersections of elements of $S$, together with the set $X$.