So, I have recently stumbled upon the following problem while studying measure theory.
Given a Vitali set $V\subset [0,1]$ and a positive measure set $A \subseteq [0,1]$, prove that their intersection is not measurable.
While solving it, I have found an easy counterexample (just take $V$ a Vitali set constructed from $[0,0.1]$ and $A=[0.9,1]$). So, I am quite puzzled now, how can it be false since it is also from the book Mathematics++: Selected topics beyond the basic courses by Kantor, Matousek and Samal? So, have I misunderstood something there? Or is there really a mistake in the book? And also, how can the statement be salvaged? I found one approach which consists of adding the condition that the outer measure of $V$ is greater than $1-m(A)$. If I did not make any mistake, then it is relatively easy to prove the statement assuming that. However, what are alternative salvages?
Note: I know that there is a similar question here Intersection with Vitali Set not measurable But, there they don't mention anything about the counterexample, so I am really puzzled since it is really basic.