Edit: It has been pointed out that the answer to this problem is simply $1 - (1 - \Pr(\text{success}))^n$.
I've recently been toying around with probabilities related to the lottery, and I was wondering about how many plays it would take to win any prize in a drawing. Formally, suppose we have $n$ plays in a typical 6/49 lottery game in which a prize is awarded for matching at least $3$ balls. What is the probability of winning a prize?
If we let $A_k$ denote the event of at least one play matching exactly $k$ balls and let $B$ denote the event of at least one play winning any prize, then we have $$\Pr(B) = 1 - (\Pr(A_0) + \Pr(A_1) + \Pr(A_2)) = 1 - \frac{\binom{6}{0} \binom{43}{6}}{\binom{49}{6}} - \frac{\binom{6}{1} \binom{43}{5}}{\binom{49}{6}} - \frac{\binom{6}{2} \binom{43}{4}}{\binom{49}{6}} =: p_1.$$
Edit: For general $n$, we simply have $\Pr(B) = 1 - (1 - p_1)^n$. This question was quite straightforward in retrospect.
Since the original question turned out to be so simple, are there any results related to the following?
A similar question which is discussed on the first linked Wikipedia page is the following: What is the minimum number of plays to guarantee one wins a lottery prize? Wikipedia states that this is an open problem. If we instead ask "What is the minimum number of plays to win a lottery prize with high probability (say, $0.95$)?" then what can we say?