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I know that when $g''(x)>0$ it means that $g$ is strictly convex. By Taylor's theorem we have:

$$ g(x) = g(E(x)) + [x - E(x)]g'(E(x)) + \frac{[x-E(x)]^2}{2}g''(\epsilon_x) $$ for $\epsilon_x\in(x,E(x))$. So for $g''(x)>0$ we have $$ g(x) > g(E(x)) + [x - E(x)]g'(E(x)) $$

But I have no idea how to prove that if $E(g(x))=g(E(x))$ then $X$ is a constant random variable. Any help or hint would be appreciated.

Mina
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1 Answers1

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Hint:

Define the linear functional $l(x) = g(EX) + g'(EX)(x-EX)$, and note that $g(x) > l(x)$ for $x \neq EX$.

Now consider $E[g(X)-l(X)]$ and show that if $X \ne EX$ on a set of positive measure, then $E[g(X)-l(X)] >0$.

copper.hat
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