This question was from an exam taken in January 2022 on a course on introductory multivariable calculus and was worded exactly as follows:
"For a general surface $S$ bounded by a closed curve $C$ show using Stokes theorem that for a vector field, $\mathbf{F}(\mathbf{r})$
$$\int_S\nabla\times(\mathbf{F}\times\mathrm{d}\mathbf{S})=\alpha\int_C\mathbf{F}\times\mathrm{d}\mathbf{r}$$
and identify the constant $\alpha$."
The "$\mathrm{d}\mathbf{S}$" is used to denote a surface integral and the "$\mathrm{d}\mathbf{r}$" to denote a line integral.
I have asked a couple of mathematicians who work in applied mathematics and they have not been able to prove this either. The LHS is apparently the area of concern - having "$\nabla\times(\mathbf{F}\times\mathrm{d}\mathbf{S})$" seems to be what's throwing people off.
I have been told that the answer should result in a vector even though, in the course, vector-valued integrals were never defined and so the notions of "$\times\mathrm{d}\mathbf{S}$" and "$\times\mathrm{d}\mathbf{r}$" were also not defined, so while I personally believe this question was unfair, I'm asking more about whether or not it's possible.
If this is a mistake, could you explain why? And if it isn't, can you prove it?