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I am trying to evaluate $$I=\int_0^\infty\frac{1}{(\sqrt{x})^3+1}dx$$ I know that I can probably do a change of variable and then split it to partial fraction, which should be integrable without any complex analysis. However, I am struggling with solving this integral with a contour. For example, I tried using the semi-circle in the upper half-plane, but I cannot figure out $\int_{-\infty}^0\frac{1}{(\sqrt{x})^3+1}dx$ as a multiple of $I$. I changed it to $\int_\infty^0\frac{1}{(\sqrt{e^{i\pi}x})^3+1}dx$, and do not know how to proceed. Is partial fraction here inevitable?

fp1
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    Why exactly do you feel you must solve this with contour integration? What's so bad about partial fractions? – CJ Dowd Jan 12 '22 at 07:03
  • @CJ Dowd There’s nothing wrong with partial fractions. I just find myself weak in arguments caused by partial fractions. In particular, a lot of contour integrals have this same trick, where the value along one segment is a multiple of the other, and I am slow with this multiple coefficient – fp1 Jan 12 '22 at 08:31

2 Answers2

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Hint

Replace $x=u^2$ to obtain $$ I=\int_0^\infty \frac{2udu}{u^3+1} $$ and perform contour integration on the above expression.

Mostafa Ayaz
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  • Hi, thank you for your hint! I have tried this change of variable before and I have just tried a contour, namely a fan of 120 degrees, and I think I can get a correct coefficient. However I cannot get the same coefficient with a quarter circle contour, which is what I did before. Is the choice of contour really important here? I feel like they should give the same answer don’t they? But with 120 degree contour, $(e^{2\pi i/3}u)^3=u^3$, which is convenient, while the the 90 degree one does not cancel – fp1 Jan 12 '22 at 08:48
  • Your welcome. The actual choice of contour does not matter, except calculating the integral over the contour should be easy and the contour should include the original integration interval, which is $(0,\infty)$ in your case. – Mostafa Ayaz Jan 12 '22 at 10:54
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This is actually a standard integral. I don't really like partial fractions since this will involve an irreducible quadratic, and therefore many logs and arctans in the integration which is just ugly.

Suppose $\alpha>1$ is any real number. Then, $\int_0^{\infty}\frac{dx}{1+x^{\alpha}}=\frac{\pi/\alpha}{\sin(\pi/\alpha)}$ (I've seen this integral a few times so I just so happen to have commited this to memory). The way I prefer to prove this is to first make the substitution $t=x^{\alpha}$, which yields \begin{align} \int_0^{\infty}\frac{dx}{1+x^{\alpha}}&=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\frac{1}{\alpha}t^{\frac{1}{\alpha}-1}}{1+t}\,dt=\frac{1}{\alpha}\int_0^1\frac{dt}{t^{1-\frac{1}{\alpha}}(1+t)} \end{align} and this is of the form $\int_0^{\infty}\frac{R(t)}{t^{\beta}}\,dt$ for some rational function $R(t)$ (namely $\frac{1}{1+t}$) and some $0<\beta<1$. Here, the answer can be obtained by integrating along a "pacman contour" (see the here for the picture, and an explanation of why the contour works, if you haven't already seen this). Anyway, by following the procedure there, you can prove that $\int_0^{\infty}\frac{dt}{t^{\beta}(1+t)}=\frac{\pi}{\sin(\pi \beta)}=\frac{\pi}{\sin(\pi/\alpha)}$, where the last equal sign is just the addition formula.

I'm pretty sure you can also evaluate the integral $\int_0^{\infty}\frac{dx}{1+x^{\alpha}}$ by integrating over the sector of angle $\frac{2\pi}{\alpha}$.

So, for the particular case of $\alpha=\frac{3}{2}$, this yields $\frac{2\pi/3}{\sin(2\pi/3)}=\frac{2\pi/3}{\sqrt{3}/2}=\frac{4\pi}{3\sqrt{3}}$.

peek-a-boo
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  • Oh, this is an interesting generalization! The link you provided is not working, do you mind updating the link? Thank you! – fp1 Jan 12 '22 at 21:07
  • @flypig I just edited the link, take a look now (lol must have copied and pasted incorrectly). – peek-a-boo Jan 12 '22 at 21:29