This Wikipedia article states the LK (${\rightarrow}L$) rule as:
$$\Gamma \vdash A, \Delta \qquad \Sigma, B \vdash \Pi \over \Gamma, \Sigma, A \rightarrow B \vdash \Delta, \Pi$$
I'm trying to find some confirmation or intuition of why this is so.
First, I assume that there is a derivation of "$\Gamma \vdash A, \Delta$" and of "$\Sigma, B \vdash \Pi$" using the rules of the LK sequent calculus (I'm using the wording from this comment [1]).
I am interpreting "$\Gamma, \Sigma, A \rightarrow B \vdash \Delta, \Pi$" as saying: "In the joint context of $\Gamma$, $\Sigma$ and $A \rightarrow B$, at least one of $\Delta$ or $\Pi$ must be true." So my ultimate goal is to confirm that in the joint context of $\Gamma$, $\Sigma$ and $A \rightarrow B$ (or a subset of them), at least one of $\Delta$ or $\Pi$ is true under all possible assignments/cases of $A$ and $B$:
| $A$ | $B$ | $A \rightarrow B$ | Intuition |
|---|---|---|---|
| 0 | x | true | Given that "$\Gamma \vdash A, \Delta$", in the context of $\Gamma$ if $A$ is false, then it necessary for $\Delta$ to be true, so $\Delta$ is true. |
| 1 | 0 | false | Since $A \rightarrow B$ is false, we can ignore this case because "$\Gamma, \Sigma, A \vdash \Delta, \Pi$" makes no assertions about what happens when $A \rightarrow B$ is false. |
| 1 | 1 | true | In the context of $\Sigma$ and $B$, $\Pi$ is true. |
Does this make sense? If you have a cleaner or more concise way to get this intuition, I'm interested in seeing it.
The sequent $\Gamma \vdash \Delta$ means that there is a formal derivation of this sequent using the rules of the LK sequent calculus. [1]
I know the rule is part of the definition of ⊢, so by definition, the rule is true [2], but I would still like to build some intuition about it.