$\mathbf {The \ Problem \ is}:$
$\mathbf {My \ approach}:$ Actually, I tried to show $T = \frac{F=(X×W)\sqcup (Y×W)}{(f(a),w)\sim (g(a),w)}$ for all $a\in A$ and $w\in W$ is homeomorphic to $Z×W$ using the fact that $Z= \frac{D=X\sqcup Y}{f(a)\sim g(a)}$ for all $a\in A.$
Firstly, I defined $q : F \to Z×W $ by $(r,w) \mapsto ([r],w)$ ,then q is well-defined and continuous(as component wise continuous) .
Then, we can apply universal property to extend $q$ to $Q$ from $T$ to $Z×W$ as $q(f(a),w)=q(g(a),w)$ for all $a$ , all $w.$
Then $Q$ is one-one,onto, continuous but I am getting confused in showing $Q$ is open map .
Taking an open set $P$ in $T$ , then we can write $P$ as an union of all those $[(x,w)]$ such that $x \notin f(A)$, and those $[(y,w)]$ such that $y \notin g(A)$ and those $[(f(a),w)]$ which are inside $P.$
Here all the spaces are topological spaces and all maps are continuous .
After that, I am getting confused . A small hint is warmly appreciated.
Thanks in advance.
