Suppose we have a smooth 2D surface embedded in 3D Euclidean space defined parametrically by, $$ r : \mathbb{R^2} \to \mathbb{R}^3\ ,\ \ \ r(x,y) := \begin{bmatrix} \bar{x}(x,y) \\ \bar{y}(x,y) \\ \bar{z}(x,y) \end{bmatrix} $$
We also have its Jacobian and higher partial derivatives: $$ J(x,y) := \begin{bmatrix} \frac{\partial r}{\partial x}(x,y) & \frac{\partial r}{\partial y}(x,y) \end{bmatrix} \in \mathbb{R}^{3 \times 2} $$
Consider a 1D trajectory through the parametric space: $$ q : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}^2\ ,\ \ \ q(t) := \begin{bmatrix} x(t) \\ y(t) \end{bmatrix} $$
By chain-rule (and over-dot notation) the ambient velocity is, \begin{align} \frac{dr}{dt} &= \frac{dr}{dq} \frac{dq}{dt}\\ \dot{r} &= J \dot{q} \end{align}
By product-rule the ambient acceleration is, $$ \ddot{r} = J \ddot{q} + \dot{J} \dot{q} $$
A similar two-term expression for the acceleration can be derived by expressing the velocity as a product of its magnitude $v := ||\dot{r}||$ and direction $\hat{\tau} := \dot{r} / v$. \begin{align} \dot{r} &= v\hat{\tau}\\ \implies\ \ddot{r} &= \dot{v}\hat{\tau} + v\dot{\hat{\tau}} \end{align}
Obviously we can equate these $\ddot{r}$ expansions, but I am wondering about whether the following red/blue terms are individually equatable: $$ \ddot{r} = \color{red}{J \ddot{q}} + \color{blue}{\dot{J} \dot{q}} = \color{red}{\dot{v}\hat{\tau}} + \color{blue}{v\dot{\hat{\tau}}} $$
The term $\color{red}{J \ddot{q}}$ is always in the tangent plane because it is a linear combination of tangent vectors: $$ \color{red}{J \ddot{q}} = \ddot{x} \frac{\partial r}{\partial x} + \ddot{y} \frac{\partial r}{\partial y} $$
The same is true for $\color{red}{\dot{v}\hat{\tau}}$ since it is in the direction of the velocity. This inclines me to write a stronger pair of equalities: \begin{gather} \color{red}{J \ddot{q} \overset{?}{=} \dot{v}\hat{\tau}} \tag{1}\\ \color{blue}{\dot{J} \dot{q} \overset{?}{=} v\dot{\hat{\tau}}} \tag{2} \end{gather}
To actually prove this, I think I would need to show that $\color{blue}{\dot{J} \dot{q}}$ and $\color{blue}{v\dot{\hat{\tau}}}$ are orthogonal to the tangent plane. Edit: nevermind, that isn't true, but also isn't necessary.
I have been unable to show this in general (though I might just be missing a fact that could allow me to simplify things). How should I conclude on conjectures (1) and (2)? And if they are false, can you shed some light on the geometry of the relationship between the two different $\ddot{r}$ expansions?
Thanks!