0

Given two matrices $A$ and $B$, the question is whether $AA^\ast \preceq B^\ast B$ implies any relation between the singular values of the matrices.

For example, $$\bar{\sigma}(A)\le \underline{\sigma}(B),$$ where $\bar{\sigma}(\cdot)$ and $\underline{\sigma}(\cdot)$ are the maximal and minimal singular values of a matrix, respectively.

Morad
  • 690
  • 3
    You should put the entire question in the body. In particular, you should say what $A,B,\underline{\sigma},\bar\sigma$ are. – tomasz Jul 16 '20 at 17:59
  • 1
  • Especially $\bar \sigma$ and $\underline \sigma$. I didn't see and can't find this notation. 2) Any reason why matrix multiplications are in a different order? Why not $A^\ast A \preceq B^\ast B$?
  • – Dmitry Jul 16 '20 at 18:03
  • Thank you very much for your comments, I clarified the notation. – Morad Jul 16 '20 at 18:35
  • 1
    Try $A=\begin{bmatrix}3&0\0&1\end{bmatrix}$ and $B=\begin{bmatrix}4&0\0&2\end{bmatrix}$. – Batominovski Jul 16 '20 at 18:40
  • Hmmm? How did you get that? Maybe I misunderstand your question. What is the operator $(_)^$? Is it the usual Hermitian conjugate? If that is so, you should have $A^=A$ and $B^*=B$. – Batominovski Jul 16 '20 at 19:00
  • @Batominovski Oops, thanks! Are you familiar with any other relation between the SV of A and B under the above condition. – Morad Jul 16 '20 at 19:07
  • 1
    @Morad I don't know any, and I don't expect any, unless there are more restrictions on $A$ and $B$. – Batominovski Jul 16 '20 at 19:10