Let $X\sim C(0,1)$ with density $f_X(x):=\frac{1}{\pi(1+x^2)}$.
- Find the probability of event $B=(-1<X<1)$.
$\rightarrow \mathbb{P}(-1<X<1)=\int_{-1}^{1}\frac{1}{\pi(1+x^2)}dx=\frac{1}{2}$
- Find the law of $Y=\frac{1}{X}$.
$\rightarrow Y\sim C(0,1)$
- Find the law of $Z=\sigma X+\mu$, with $\mu \in \mathbb{R}$ and $\sigma >0$.
$\rightarrow F_z(z)=\mathbb{P}(Z\leq z)=\mathbb{P}(X\leq \frac{z-\mu}{\sigma})=… $
Now, I guess, I have to conclude that $Z\sim N(0,1)$. Right?
- If $X_1 \perp X_2 \sim C(0,1)$, find the law of $W=\frac{X_1+X_2}{2}$.
$\rightarrow $ Here I've read that the sum of $n$ Cauchy distributed random variables is $C(0,1),\forall n$, but I didn't really understand why. How can I prove it?
Thanks in advance for any clarification.