Let $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ be a nice domain with smooth boundary (say a ball), and let $f:\Omega \to \mathbb{R}^n$ be smooth. Set $\Omega_0=\{ x \in \Omega \, | \, \det df_x =0 \} $
In this answer, zhw proves that if $x \in \Omega_0$, and $B(r)$ is an Euclidean ball of radius $r$ centered at $x$, then $\lim_{r \to 0}\frac{m(f(B(r))}{m(B(r))} =0$.
My question is whether this claim holds uniformly in the center of the balls:
For every $r$, let $x(r) \in \Omega_0$, and suppose that $B_{x(r)}(r)$ (the ball with radius $r$ centered at $x_i$) is contained in $\Omega$. (so $f$ is defined on it).
I also assume that $d(x(r),\partial \Omega) \ge \epsilon$ for some positive $\epsilon$.
Is it true that $\lim_{r \to 0}\frac{m(f(B_{x(r)}(r)))}{m(B_{x(r)}(r))} =0$?
The $x(r)$ can change with $r$.
I think that this question might be connected to the question of uniform differentiability, which in general does not hold for non-convex domains.