Let $E, F$ be Fréchet spaces and $f: E \to F$. We say that $f$ is differentiable at $x$ in the direction of $h \in E$ if the following limit exists. \begin{eqnarray} Df[x](h) := \lim_{t \to 0}\frac{f(x+th)-f(x)}{t} \tag{1}\label{1} \end{eqnarray} If $Df[x](h)$ exists for all $x, h \in E$ we say that $f$ is differentiable. Also, $f$ is called $C^{1}$ if $Df: E\times E \to F$ is continuous.
Take $E= \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^{d})$ and $F = \mathbb{C}$ and suppose $f: \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^{d}) \to \mathbb{C}$ is $C^{1}$. If $x \in E$ is fixed, the map $Df[x]: \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^{d}) \to \mathbb{C}$ given by $h \mapsto Df[x](h)$ is continuous by hypothesis. Also, it can be proved that this map is linear, so that $Df[x] \in \mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R}^{d})$.
It is possible that $Df[x]$ is the distribution induced by some function, say, $\delta f/\delta x$, so that: \begin{eqnarray} Df[x](h) = \int \frac{\delta f}{\delta x}(x)h(x)dx \tag{2}\label{2} \end{eqnarray} However, to me there is nothing that assures $Df[x]$ to be in fact induced by some kernel. However, it is very common (specially in the physics literature) to write $Df[x]$ as in (\ref{2}).
I'd like to know if I'm missing something here. Can $Df[x]$ always be written in terms of a kernel, like in (\ref{2}) or is it just a matter of notation?strong text