I was wondering if $f_n$ converges pointwise to $f$ on a closed interval, $E$, must there be closed interval $E' \subseteq E$ such that $f_n|_{E'}$ converges uniformly to $f|_{E'}$.
Currently, with my intuition, I can't think of an counter-example.
I was wondering if $f_n$ converges pointwise to $f$ on a closed interval, $E$, must there be closed interval $E' \subseteq E$ such that $f_n|_{E'}$ converges uniformly to $f|_{E'}$.
Currently, with my intuition, I can't think of an counter-example.
Let $(q_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ be an enumeration of $\mathbb Q\cap[0,1]$. For each $n\in\mathbb N$, let $f_n\colon[0,1]\longrightarrow\mathbb R$ be equal to $\chi_{\{q_n\}}$; in other words, $f_n(x)=0$, unless $x=q_n$, in which case $f_n(x)=1$. Then $(f_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ converges pointwise to the null function. However, there is no interval $[a,b]\subset[0,1]$ (with $a<b$) such that the convergence is uniform on $[a,b]$, since $[a,b]$ contains infinitely many $q_n$'s.