Context
While answering this question I noticed that the procedure used there could be extended to show that any sequence of the form $$y_n = \sum_{k=0}^n a_{n-k}x_k, \ \ n=0,1,2\dots\tag{1}\label{eq1}$$ is null if the series $\sum a_n$ converges absolutely and $(x_n)$ is a null sequence.
I wanted to create some examples, as variations of the one proposed in the above mentioned question, and came up with, e.g.,
$$y_{n+1} = \frac{n}{n+1} + \frac23 \cdot y_n, \ \ n=0,1,2,\dots,\tag{2}\label{eq2}$$ and arbitrary $y_0\neq 0$.
With the change of variable $z_n = y_n -3$ you can then write $$z_n = \sum_{k=0}^n \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{n-k}x_k,$$ with $$ x_n= \begin{cases} z_0 & (x=0)\\ -\frac{1}{n+1} & (n>0), \end{cases} $$ that is exactly the form \eqref{eq1}, and it satisfies the hypotheses. So the sequence $(z_n)$ is null and $(y_n)$ converges to $3$, independently of the intial value $y_0$.
Question
I think from \eqref{eq2} the convergence to $3$ is sort of obvious, but I was not able to come up with a less "convoluted" way to show it. Could you provide me with an alternative proof of the convergence of $(y_n)$?