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I found in a paper that the multi-dimensional integral of a squared exponential correlation function times a multivariate normal has an analytical expression as follows. \begin{equation} \int\exp{\left\{-(\theta-c)^T\Omega_t (\theta-c)\right\}}(2\pi)^{-k/2}|V_\theta|^{-\frac{1}{2}}\exp{\left\{-\frac{1}{2}(\theta-m_\theta)^TV_\theta^{-1} (\theta-m_\theta)\right\}} d\theta= \end{equation} \begin{equation} =|I+2V_\theta\Omega_t|^{-1/2}\exp{\left\{-(m_\theta-c)^T(2V_\theta+\Omega_t^{-1})^{-1} (m_\theta-c)\right\}} \end{equation} where $c$ is a constant, $\Omega_t$ is a $k$-dimensional diagonal matrix with the inverse of the length scales of the correlation function and $m_\theta$ and $V_\theta$ are the mean and covariance of the MVN distribution, respectively. I would like to see a proof or have a hint as to how the analytic expression is as shown above. I've searched and found the following related posts

Sum of two quadratic forms

Integral of product of two normal distribution densities

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gaussian_integral#n-dimensional_and_functional_generalization

Thank you in advance.

Ajned
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  • who the hell uses such notation for the normal distribution –  Jul 04 '19 at 13:44
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    Here's the paper. It's in the middle of page 4. One of the authors is an emeritus professor in statistics. Can't comment on the notation (I'm just a human engineer myself) – Ajned Jul 04 '19 at 13:49
  • I am going to use section 3 of this report as a basis to combine the sq.exp. function and the MVN as one Gaussian, which can then be integrated easily. Please let me know if you think/don't think that this approach makes sense. Thanks – Ajned Jul 06 '19 at 12:40

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I was able to find a breakthrough to crack it. Essentially I've used the equation shown in this answer https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2996439/608359, and realised that the matrix in the numerator can be written much more simply as $(\Gamma + \Sigma)^{-1}$. Similarly, the determinants in the denominator can also be simplified in a similar manner. Therefore, it is necessary to convert the correlation function to a MVN distribution, and then to apply the simplified formula

$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^D} \rho_{\mu, \Sigma}(x)\cdot\rho_{\mathbf{0},\Gamma}(x)\,dx=\frac{\exp\left(-\frac 12 (\mu^T(\Gamma+\Sigma)^{-1}\mu) \right)} {\sqrt{(2\pi)^D |\Sigma||\Gamma\Sigma^{-1}+I|}}$$

Ajned
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