I am currently working through some basic exercises in probability and have run into a snag. I am given two independent random variables $X$ and $Y$ that are both exponentially distributed with respective parameters $\lambda_{1}$ and $\lambda_{2}$. The exercise is to establish the independence of $\min(X,Y)$ and $\min(X,Y)-\max(X,Y)$. Denoting $\min(X,Y)$ as $M_{1}$, $\max(X,Y)$ as $M_{2}$, and $M_{1}-M_{2}$ as $Z$, my thought was to show that for $x_{1},x_{2}\in\mathbb{R}$ that
$$\mathbb{P}(M_{1}\leq x_{1},Z\leq x_{2})=\mathbb{P}(M_{1}\leq x_{1})\mathbb{P}(Z\leq x_{2})$$
I've computed cdf's for $M_{1}$ (which is exponential) and $Z$ (which has a cdf I don't recognize), but moving from there is where I'm stuck. I am aware that we can restrict to the case where $x_{1}\geq 0$ and $x_{2}\leq 0$. Any hints would be appreciated.
Edit: I've looked at Leonbloy's answer to
Independence between maximum and minimum of exponential
and I'm still somewhat confused. His $C$ is my $-Z$. He has the line
$$\mathbb{P}(M_{2}<b\mid M_{1}=a)=\mathbb{P}(M_{2}<b\mid M_{1}=a,M_{1}=X)\mathbb{P}(M_{1}=X)+\mathbb{P}(M_{2}<b\mid M_{1}=a,M_{1}=Y)\mathbb{P}(M_{1}=Y)$$
I can't determine how this line is justified. It looks like the law of total probability, but I am not sure.