I think this question was asked here before, but I am unable to find it at the moment. Apologies if this is due to my ineptitude.
Anyway, the question is as follows: let $n>1$ be an integer number and $a_1,\dots,a_n\in\mathbb{R}^+$. We define $S_1:=\sum_{i=1}^n a_i$ and $S_2:=\sum_{i=1}^n a_i^2$. Is it true that $$\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{S_1-a_i}{S_2-a_i^2}\geq n\frac{S_1}{S_2}?$$
I am pretty sure it is (basically by qualitative considerations and by the fact that $\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{S_1-a_i}{S_2-a_i^2}> (n-1)\frac{S_1}{S_2}$ is trivial), but I was thus far unable to find a proof.