Studying a paper about risk measures by F. Delbaen, I bumped into this statement:
Let $(\Omega,\mathcal{F},\mathbb{P})$ be a probability space: if $\mathbb{P}$ is atomless, then there exists no functional $\rho:L^0\to\mathbb{R}$ such that:
- $\rho(X+a)=\rho(X)-a \quad \forall a \in \mathbb{R},$
- $\rho(X+Y)\le \rho(X)+\rho(Y),$
- $\rho(\lambda X)=\lambda\rho(X), \quad \forall \lambda>0,$
- $X\ge 0 \implies \rho(X)\le 0,$
for every $X\in L^0.$
Here we denote by $L^0$ the linear space of all random variables on $\Omega$ with the metric of the convergence in probability.
Then the author assesses that this is a consequence of the analytic Hahn-Banach theorem and of the fact that a continuous functional on $L^0$ must be necessarily null if $\mathbb{P}$ is atomless.
Now, I'm full of doubts: first of all I didn't know the statement about the linear functionals on the $L^0$ space: could you give me some reference where to read about it? I tried to google something but didn't find anything.
Secondly I didn't really undestand how to use in a clever way the Hahn-Banach theorem: this risk functionals were previously introduced on the space $L^\infty,$ where it is easy to check that they are continuous (wrt to $\|\cdot\|_\infty$), so I thought it was natural to use $L^\infty$ as subspace where to use Hahn-Banach, but I don't know which linear functional on $L^\infty$ I shoul use to be sure that it will be continuous on $L^0$ when extended.
Any help would be a lot appreciated. Thanks to everybody.