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I am trying to understand the following sentence

"When X is compact and Hausdorff (essentially, when X can be embedded in Euclidean space), then the cone CX can be visualized as the collection of lines joining every point of X to a single point. However, this picture fails when X is not compact or not Hausdorff, as generally the quotient topology on CX will be finer than the set of lines joining X to a point."

from the wikiepdia article about cones .

Can somebody give an explicit example of this phenomenon?

Near
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  • First of all, when $X$ is not in $\Bbb R^n$, the visualization of $CX$ as a certain cone-shaped subset of $\Bbb R^{n+1}$ certainly fails. Or: In order to speak of lines joining to a point, we need an embedding space with $X$ and a separate point in it to begin with. In general, $CX$ is precisely the most straightforward such space ... – Hagen von Eitzen Oct 27 '18 at 07:29
  • I suppose that one aspect of what they try to express is: If $X$ is so coarse that no point is closed (e.g., indiscrete topology), then $CX$ has almost no closed points either - but the apex of the cone is closed; so in a way, the topology of $CX$ is finer at the apex then elsewhere – Hagen von Eitzen Oct 27 '18 at 07:32

2 Answers2

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Wikipedia is not always the most reliable source. The sentence you quoted is definitely not a precise statement.

1) "When $X$ is compact and Hausdorff (essentially, when $X$ can be embedded in Euclidean space)"

Compact Hausdorff spaces are in general not embeddable into an Euclidean space, thus "essentially" is totally misleading.

However, consider a subset $X \subset \mathbb{R}^n \times \{ 0 \} \subset \mathbb{R}^{n+1}$, pick a point $p \in \mathbb{R}^{n+1} \setminus \mathbb{R}^n \times \{ 0 \}$ and define $$C_pX = \{ (1-t)x + tp \mid x \in X , t \in [0,1] \} = \bigcup_{x \in x} S(x,p)$$ where $S(x,p) = \{ (1-t)x + tp \mid t \in [0,1] \}$ is the line segment in $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ connecting $x$ and $p$. The space $C_pX$ is a "geometric cone" on $X$. It is a metrizable space, in particular it has a countable neighborhood base at $p$.

The map $$h : CX \to C_pX, h([x,t]) = (1-t)x + tp$$ is always a continuous bijection. It is an easy exercise to show it is a homeomorphism provided $X$ is compact (here I used $CX = X \times [0,1]/X \times \{ 1 \}$) which is equivalent to the definition in Wikipedia).

2) "However, this picture fails when $X$ is not compact or not Hausdorff."

There is no picture unless $X \subset \mathbb{R}^n \times \{ 0 \}$. Such $X$ is automatically Hausdorff, but of course in general not compact.

We now show that the above map $h$ is no homeomorphism if $X$ is not compact - that seems to be what Wikipedia wants to say.

If $X$ is not compact, then we can find a sequence $(x_n)$ in $X$ which does not have an accumulation point in $X$. Since $p$ has a countable neighborhood base, we can find $t_n \in [0,1)$ such that $y_n = (1-t_n)x_n + t_np \to p$ in $C_pX \subset \mathbb{R}^{n+1}$. The set $A = \{ (x_n,t_n) \mid n \in \mathbb{N} \}$ is closed in $X \times [0,1]$. We have $p^{-1}(p(A)) = A$, therefore $p(A)$ is closed in $CX$. But $h(p(A)) = \{ y_n \mid n \in \mathbb{N} \}$ is not closed in $C_pX$ (recall $y_n \to p$) which shows that $h$ is no homeomorphism.

Remark: The construction of "geometric cones" can be generalized a little. For any $X \subsetneqq \mathbb{R}^m$ and any $p \in \mathbb{R}^m \setminus X$ we can define $C_pX$ as above. If $X \cap \{ (1-t)x + tp \mid x \in X , t \in (0,1] \} = \emptyset$, then $C_pX$ is a perfect geometric cone on $X$.

Such $p$ can always be found if the linear span of $X$ is a subspace of dimension $< m$. If the linear span is $\mathbb{R}^m$, then we cannot make a general statement about $C_pX$. Sometimes it is a geometric cone (for example when $X = S^{m-1}$ and $p = 0$), sometimes it is not (for example for $X = D^n$ and any $p$).

Paul Frost
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The general idea is this: if $X$ is a subspace of $\mathbb{R}^n$ then we can define a map from $X\times[0,1]$ to $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ by $$ f(x,t) = \bigl<(1-t)\cdot x,t\bigr> $$ For a fixed $x$ you get the line segment that connects $\langle x,0\rangle$ and $\langle\mathbf{0},1\rangle$. This map is continuous and everywhere injective, except that it maps the top level $X\times\{1\}$ to one point. This means that $f$ induces a map $\bar f:CX\to\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$; if $X$ is compact then $f$ is a closed map, hence a quotient map and so $\bar f$ is a homeomorphism.

If $X$ is not compact then this may not be the case, consider the case where $n=1$ and $X$ is the open interval $(0,1)$. The map $\bar f$ is not a homeomorphism as the set $U=\{(x,t):x\in X, t>x\}$ is open in $X\times[0,1]$ and it contains the top level. Therefore it determines a neighbourhood of the vertex in $CX$, but its image under $f$ does not determine a neighbourhood of $\langle0,1\rangle$ in the range of $f$. You can draw all this: the range is a triangle, with base $X$ and top vertex $\langle 0,1\rangle$; the image of $U$ lies to the left of the parabola parametrised by $t\mapsto\langle t-t^2,t\rangle$.

hartkp
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