Let $Y$ be the comb space, that is the following subspace of $\mathbb{R}^2$: $$ Y = (I\times\{0\})\cup (\{0\}\times I) \cup \bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}^*} (\{1/n\}\times I), $$ where $I=[0,1]$ and $\mathbb{N}^*=\mathbb{N}\setminus\{0\}$. Let $y_0=(0,1)$ and let $Y'$ be another copy of $Y$ with corresponding point $y_0'$. Let $X$ be the wedge sum of $Y$ and $Y'$ obtained by identifying the points $y_0$ and $y_0'$. The space $X$ is called the double comb space.
Note that $X$ is clearly homeomorphic to the following subspace of $\mathbb{R}^2$: $$ (\{0\}\times [-1,1]) \cup ([0,1]\times\{1\})\cup ([-1,0]\times\{-1\})\cup \bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}^*} ((\{1/n\}\times [0,1]) \cup (\{-1/n\}\times [-1,0])) $$
It is clear that $X$ is a path connected space and I have proved that $X$ is non contractible. I need to prove that the homotopy groups $\pi_n(X)$ are trivial for every $n\in\mathbb{N}^*$ by proving that every map $f:S^n\to X$ is homotopic to a constant map (or, equivalently, by showing that every such map can be continuously extended over the $n+1$ dimensional disc).
There is a similar problem with the double comb-like space, that is, the following subspace of $\mathbb{R^2}$: $$ Z = \{0\}\times [-1,1]\cup \bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}^*} ([(-1/n,0),(0,-1)]\cup [(1/n,0),(0,1)]) $$ where $[a,b]$ is the line segment joining the points $a$ and $b$ of $\mathbb{R}^2$. Here I have proved that $\pi_n(Z)=0$ for every $n$ by showing that every map $S^n\to Z$ is homotopic to a constant map.
I have tried to adapt the construction of the homotopy in the case of the space $Z$ to the case of the space $X$, but I failed. Also I tried to study if the spaces $X$ and $Z$ are of the same homotopy type, but I have failed again.
I am asking for a direct proof that every map $S^n\to X$ is homotopic to a constant map, if it is possible.
Thank you in advance!