There is no such map. It suffices to show that there is no bijective map $(0,1) \to S^1$.
If there were, then it would restrict to a bijection $f:(0,1) \setminus \{pt\} \to S^1 \setminus \{f(pt)\}$.
In other words there would be a continuous bijection $f:I_1 \coprod I_2 \to I$, where $I_k$ are intervals, and $I$ is also an interval.
I claim that any such map would be an open map and hence a homeomorphism. To see this, we need only show that $f(I_k)$ is an open interval. Note that $f(I_k)$ is a connected component of $\mathbb R$, so of the form $[a,b),[a,b],(a,b],(a,b)$.
Suppose that it is closed on the left. Take a preimage $f^{-1}(a)$ and note that since $I_k$ is open there exists an open ball containing the preimage, say $(x,y)$. Then the argument is basically examine $f(x)$ and $f(y)$ and apply the intermediate value theorem since by hypothesis these are different points.
Clearly, $f$ cannot be a homeomorphism since $I$ is connected.