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Could someone please verify whether my solution is okay?

Let $G$ be a finite cyclic group with $|G|=n$ and generator $x$. If $y=x^{k}$ and $gcd(k,n)=1$, then show that $y$ is a generator of $G$.

Let $y=x^{k}$ with $gcd(k,n)=1$. Then $|\langle y\rangle|=|y|=\frac{n}{gcd(k,n)}=\frac{n}{1}=n$. Then $G=\langle y\rangle$.

Wang Kah Lun
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    Yes you are correct. – Wang Kah Lun Aug 13 '18 at 03:52
  • @numericalorange I think you have to show that one set is subset of another and only then can you say they are equal when their cardinalities are same. So you have to add that cycle generated by $y$ is a subset of $G$ which is not the most difficult proof in the world. – sonu Jan 25 '20 at 15:37

1 Answers1

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Here's another way:

If we can show that some power of $y$ is $x$, that is, if we can show that for some $a \in \Bbb Z$,

$y^a = x, \tag 1$

then we are done, since then

$x^l = y^{al}, \tag 2$

so that

$\langle x \rangle = \langle y \rangle. \tag 3$

Well, since

$\gcd(n, k) = 1, \tag 4$

we have $a, b \in \Bbb Z$ with

$ak + bn = 1; \tag 5$

then

$x = x^1 = x^{ak + bn} = x^{ak}x^{bn} = x^{ak} = (x^k)^a = y^a, \tag 6$

establishing (1), and we are done!

P.S. to our OP numericalorange:. Your solution looks fine to me!

Robert Lewis
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